A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting a diaphragm.Which of the following findings in the client's history should the nurse identify as a contraindication for this type of contraception?
Deep-vein thrombosis.
Tobacco use.
Recurrent urinary tract infections.
History of positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is Choice C.
Choice A rationale: Deep-vein thrombosis is not a contraindication for using a diaphragm. The diaphragm does not affect blood clotting mechanisms.
Choice B rationale: Tobacco use is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease but is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Choice C rationale: Recurrent urinary tract infections are a contraindication for diaphragm use. The diaphragm can increase the risk of urinary tract infections due to its placement and the need for spermicide, which can disrupt the natural flora of the vagina.
Choice D rationale: A history of positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic is not a contraindication for diaphragm use. Group B strep colonization is managed with antibiotics during labor, not by contraceptive choice.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Instructing the client to apply anesthetic spray to the site three to four times a day is incorrect. While anesthetic sprays can help with pain relief, it's more important to manage swelling and discomfort with a combination of methods, including ice packs and perineal care.
Choice B rationale
Encouraging the client to change perineal pads at least three times a day is insufficient. Pads should be changed more frequently to maintain hygiene and prevent infection.
Choice C rationale
Assisting the client to fill the squeeze bottle with cold water to perform perineal care is incorrect. While perineal care is important, cold water is not typically recommended as it may not provide comfort and might even cause discomfort.
Choice D rationale
Alternating warm and ice packs to the site every 2 hours for the first 24 hours postpartum is correct. This method helps manage pain and swelling effectively, promoting healing and comfort for the client.
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
An ectopic pregnancy is most likely due to the combination of symptoms: dizziness, pale skin, cool extremities, low blood pressure (86/48 mm Hg), and high heart rate (120/min). The soft and non-tender abdomen with no palpable contractions also suggests an ectopic pregnancy rather than other conditions. The low hematocrit (25%) and hemoglobin (9 g/dL) indicate significant blood loss, a hallmark of ectopic pregnancy.
Administer methotrexate is important to stop the growth of the embryo in an ectopic pregnancy. Insert a large-bore peripheral IV catheter to manage blood loss and prepare for potential surgery.
Monitoring beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and monitor treatment response. Platelet count should be monitored due to the risk of bleeding associated with an ectopic pregnancy.
Placenta previa usually presents with painless vaginal bleeding, which is absent in this case. Chorioamnionitis is typically associated with infection signs like fever, uterine tenderness, and elevated white blood cell count, not primarily dizziness and low blood pressure. Cervical insufficiency usually presents with painless cervical dilation, leading to preterm birth, not the acute signs seen here. Vaginal bleeding is a symptom, not a diagnosis, and this client reports no vaginal bleeding.
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