A nurse is assisting with the care of a 30-year-old female client who is scheduled to receive a dose of dinoprostone in the maternal newborn unit.
For which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate a provider's prescription to withhold the dinoprostone? Select all that apply.
Breech presentation
Terbutaline administration
FHR (Fetal Heart Rate)
WBC count
Lesions noted
Correct Answer : A,C,E
Choice A rationale:
Breech presentation is a contraindication for dinoprostone as it increases the risk of complications during labor and delivery. Using dinoprostone to induce labor in a non-vertex presentation can lead to issues such as cord prolapse or obstructed labor, which necessitate a cesarean section for safe delivery.
Choice B rationale:
Terbutaline administration is used to manage preterm labor by relaxing the uterus. While it is relevant in labor management, it does not directly contraindicate the use of dinoprostone. Terbutaline and dinoprostone can be used in conjunction if properly managed.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring showing abnormalities is a potential reason to withhold dinoprostone. Dinoprostone can increase uterine contractions, potentially stressing the fetus. A stable FHR with moderate variability indicates fetal well-being; however, if there were concerns, the provider might withhold dinoprostone.
Choice D rationale:
A WBC count of 9,500/mm³ is within the normal range and does not indicate an infection or condition that would contraindicate dinoprostone use. Elevated WBC count could raise concerns, but in this case, it is normal and not a contraindication.
Choice E rationale:
Lesions noted on the vaginal introitus and labia majora, likely caused by Herpes simplex virus, are a contraindication for dinoprostone. Active genital herpes lesions increase the risk of neonatal herpes transmission, making vaginal delivery risky. In such cases, cesarean delivery is often preferred to prevent transmission.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A maternal age of 30 years is not a significant risk factor for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is more common in very young mothers or those over the age of 35.
Choice B rationale
A prepregnancy BMI of 19 is within the normal range and is not considered a risk factor for preeclampsia, which is more commonly associated with higher BMI or obesity.
Choice C rationale
Being in the third pregnancy (multiparity) is not a strong risk factor for preeclampsia. The risk factors are more closely related to the individual's health conditions and first pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension is a well-known risk factor for preeclampsia as it indicates pre-existing cardiovascular issues that can predispose one to developing preeclampsia during pregnancy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Leukorrhea, a normal vaginal discharge, increases during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. It's not indicative of prenatal complications at 41 weeks of gestation.
Choice B rationale
Shortness of breath is common in late pregnancy due to the enlarged uterus pressing against the diaphragm. It is not necessarily a sign of a prenatal complication at this stage.
Choice C rationale
Non-pitting ankle edema is often seen in late pregnancy due to fluid retention and increased pressure on the veins. It is typically benign and not a sign of serious complications.
Choice D rationale
Blurred vision can indicate a serious prenatal complication such as preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and can pose significant risks to both mother and baby if not managed properly. .
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