A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking sertraline (Zoloft) for 2 weeks. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication that the medication is effective?

The client's blood pressure is within the expected reference range.

The client reports a recent weight gain.

The client reports an increase in mood.

The client's legs are not swollen.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. While maintaining blood pressure within the expected range is important, it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of sertraline, which is an antidepressant.
B. Weight gain can occur with some antidepressants, but it is not a direct indicator of their effectiveness.
C. An increase in mood is a primary goal of treatment with sertraline, and reporting this improvement suggests that the medication is having a positive effect.
D. The absence of swollen legs is not a relevant indicator for assessing the effectiveness of sertraline, as it does not relate to mood or depression symptoms.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. PT/INR is not the appropriate measure for heparin therapy, as heparin is monitored using activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This response could mislead the client regarding treatment expectations.
B. While it may take time to reach therapeutic levels, this statement doesn't clarify that heparin is not a clot-dissolving agent.
C. Heparin prevents the extension of existing clots and the formation of new clots but does not actively dissolve clots already present.
D. This statement incorrectly suggests that immediate effects are seen, which is not the case as heparin's action involves prevention rather than dissolution.

A. nystatin (Mycostatin) B. amoxicillin (Amoxil) C. metronidazole (Flagyl) D. acyclovir (Zovirax)

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat oral candidiasis (thrush), which is consistent with the client's symptoms of soreness in the mouth and the presence of a white, milky plaque that does not rub off.
B. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections but would not be effective against fungal infections like oral thrush.
C. Metronidazole is an antibiotic and antiprotozoal medication, which is not appropriate for treating oral candidiasis.
D. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat infections caused by certain viruses, such as herpes, and is not effective for fungal infections like thrush.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking sertraline (Zoloft) for 2 weeks. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication that the medication is effective?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin. The client asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is caring for an immunosuppressed pediatric client who reports soreness in his mouth and refuses to eat. Inspection of his mouth reveals a white, milky plaque that does not come off with rubbing. The nurse should anticipate which drug to be administered to this client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client has been taking propylthiouracil (PTU) for 8 weeks. Which statement by the client would indicate the drug is having its desired effects? (Select all that apply).

The nurse is administering an estrogen blocker to a client diagnosed with advanced breast cancer. Which of the following side effects will the nurse caution the client regarding?

The nurse is caring for a client currently taking a combination birth control pill for contraception prevention. Which adverse effect would the nurse closely monitor for associated with this medication?

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