A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with peritonitis. Which intervention is the highest priority in the management of this condition?
Administering pain medication as prescribed
Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours
Initiating intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy
Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Administering pain medication is important for the client's comfort, but it is not the highest priority in the management of peritonitis. Addressing the underlying infection with antibiotics takes precedence.
Choice B reason:
Monitoring vital signs is essential for assessing the client's condition, but initiating antibiotic therapy is more critical to address the underlying infection.
Choice C reason:
Initiating intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is the highest priority in the management of peritonitis. Prompt administration of antibiotics is essential to treat the bacterial infection and prevent its spread.
Choice D reason:
Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises is beneficial for preventing respiratory complications, but it is not the highest priority compared to addressing the infection with antibiotics.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Continuous gastric suction is not primarily intended to prevent aspiration pneumonia, although it may indirectly help reduce the risk of aspiration in some cases.
Choice B reason:
Reducing intra-abdominal pressure is not the primary purpose of continuous gastric suction, although it may have some effect on the overall abdominal pressure.
Choice C reason:
Continuous gastric suction is not primarily intended to manage pain and discomfort in the client with peritonitis, although it may help alleviate some symptoms.
Choice D reason:
Promoting bowel rest is the main purpose of continuous gastric suction in the management of peritonitis. By reducing the workload of the gastrointestinal tract, the inflamed peritoneum can heal and recover more effectively.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Abdominal compartment syndrome may present with abdominal distension and firmness but is not directly associated with hypotension and tachycardia.
Choice B reason:
Respiratory distress syndrome may manifest with respiratory symptoms such as dyspnea and decreased oxygen saturation but is not directly associated with hypotension and tachycardia.
Choice C reason:
Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection and can cause hypotension and tachycardia as part of its clinical presentation.
Choice D reason:
Gastrointestinal bleeding may present with symptoms such as melena or hematemesis but is not directly associated with hypotension and tachycardia.
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