A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of hypertension.
The client notes that he has had hypertension for 3 years and recently stopped taking an antihypertensive medication that has caused a cough in the past from the healthcare provider's order.
Based on the client's presentation and history, which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider will prescribe to this client for his hypertension?
Losartan.
Digoxin.
Captopril.
Lisinopril.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that helps lower blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels. It is often prescribed for clients who cannot tolerate angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like Captopril or Lisinopril due to side effects such as a persistent cough.
Choice B rationale
Digoxin is a medication primarily used to treat heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It is not typically prescribed for the management of hypertension as it does not directly lower blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a persistent cough in some patients. Since the client has experienced this side effect, it is unlikely that Captopril would be prescribed again.
Choice D rationale
Lisinopril is another ACE inhibitor, similar to Captopril. Given the client's history of a cough caused by ACE inhibitors, Lisinopril is also not a suitable option.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Opioid toxicity triad includes symptoms of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and coma. These symptoms are indicative of a morphine sulfate overdose.
Choice B rationale
Orthostatic hypotension is a form of low blood pressure that happens when standing up from sitting or lying down. It is not related to opioid toxicity.
Choice C rationale
Hypertension is high blood pressure. It is not related to opioid toxicity.
Choice D rationale
Abstinence syndrome is a group of symptoms that occur upon the abrupt discontinuation or decrease in intake of medications or recreational drugs. It is not the appropriate complication for the client's presentation. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Stopping the infusion immediately is crucial to prevent further exposure to the allergen causing the adverse reaction. This intervention halts the administration of gentamicin, which is likely causing the dyspnea, rash, and itchiness. Prompt discontinuation of the medication minimizes the severity of the allergic reaction and allows for further medical management.
Choice B rationale
Administering an IV fluid bolus to flush the medication is not the priority intervention in this case. While it might help to clear the medication from the bloodstream, it does not address the immediate need to stop the allergen exposure and manage the allergic reaction.
Choice C rationale
Encouraging the client to take deep breaths and remain calm is supportive, but it does not address the root cause of the allergic reaction, which is the administration of gentamicin. The immediate priority is to stop the infusion and then manage the symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may help alleviate respiratory distress, but it is not the priority intervention. The primary step is to stop the infusion to prevent further exposure to the allergen.
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