A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of hypertension.
The client notes that he has had hypertension for 3 years and recently stopped taking an antihypertensive medication that has caused a cough in the past from the healthcare provider's order.
Based on the client's presentation and history, which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider will prescribe to this client for his hypertension?
Losartan.
Digoxin.
Captopril.
Lisinopril.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that helps lower blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels. It is often prescribed for clients who cannot tolerate angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like Captopril or Lisinopril due to side effects such as a persistent cough.
Choice B rationale
Digoxin is a medication primarily used to treat heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It is not typically prescribed for the management of hypertension as it does not directly lower blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a persistent cough in some patients. Since the client has experienced this side effect, it is unlikely that Captopril would be prescribed again.
Choice D rationale
Lisinopril is another ACE inhibitor, similar to Captopril. Given the client's history of a cough caused by ACE inhibitors, Lisinopril is also not a suitable option.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ondansetron (Zofran) is an anti-emetic medication used to prevent nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and the gastrointestinal tract.
Choice B rationale
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an analgesic and antipyretic medication used to relieve pain and reduce fever, but it is not an anti-emetic.
Choice C rationale
Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is an anti-psychotic and anti-emetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting, as well as certain mental/mood disorders.
Choice D rationale
Morphine Sulfate is an opioid analgesic used to relieve moderate to severe pain but does not have anti-emetic properties.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Albuterol is a bronchodilator used to treat or prevent bronchospasm in people with reversible obstructive airway disease. It is not considered an anti-infective medication.
Choice B rationale
Ciprofloxacin is an anti-infective medication used to treat a variety of bacterial infections. It belongs to a class of drugs called quinolone antibiotics.
Choice C rationale
Metformin is an oral diabetes medicine that helps control blood sugar levels. It is not considered an anti-infective medication.
Choice D rationale
Warfarin is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) used to prevent blood clots. It is not considered an anti-infective medication.
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