A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) that will be discharged from the hospital in the next hour.
The nurse notes that the client is unable to provide self-injections at home.
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect for discharge to manage the DVT at home?
Insulin.
Warfarin (Coumadin).
Heparin.
Enoxaparin (Lovenox).
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Insulin is a medication used to manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes. It is not appropriate for the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it has no anticoagulant properties.
Choice B rationale
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for the long-term management of DVT. It is suitable for clients who are unable to self-administer injections, making it a practical option for discharge.
Choice C rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant that is typically administered via injection or IV. For clients unable to self-inject at home, it is not the best choice for managing DVT after discharge.
Choice D rationale
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is also administered via injection. For clients unable to perform self-injections, this medication would not be the most appropriate option for home management of DVT.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C"}
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload in CHF patients. However, it can exacerbate electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Since the client is already experiencing muscle spasms and has low calcium levels, additional diuretic therapy could worsen these symptoms.
Choice B rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension and heart rate in CHF patients. While beneficial for blood pressure control, it does not address the immediate issue of muscle spasms and constipation the client is experiencing.
Choice C rationale: Potassium chloride is indicated to address potential hypokalemia, which may be causing the client's muscle spasms. CHF patients on diuretics often experience low potassium levels, so supplementation is crucial to prevent complications and alleviate symptoms.
Choice D rationale: Acetaminophen is an analgesic and antipyretic, useful for pain and fever management. However, it does not address the client's reported muscle spasms, which are likely related to electrolyte imbalances.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Supplements alone are not sufficient to treat cancer. They may be used as supportive care but not as primary treatment.
Choice B rationale
Late detection reduces treatment options and effectiveness, leading to poorer outcomes for cancer patients.
Choice C rationale
Herbal remedies alone do not have scientifically proven efficacy in treating cancer and should not replace conventional treatments.
Choice D rationale
Chemotherapy uses cytotoxic drugs to kill or inhibit cancer cell growth, making it a primary treatment for many cancers, including pancreatic cancer. .
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