A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) that will be discharged from the hospital in the next hour.
The nurse notes that the client is unable to provide self-injections at home.
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect for discharge to manage the DVT at home?
Insulin.
Warfarin (Coumadin).
Heparin.
Enoxaparin (Lovenox).
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Insulin is a medication used to manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes. It is not appropriate for the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it has no anticoagulant properties.
Choice B rationale
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for the long-term management of DVT. It is suitable for clients who are unable to self-administer injections, making it a practical option for discharge.
Choice C rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant that is typically administered via injection or IV. For clients unable to self-inject at home, it is not the best choice for managing DVT after discharge.
Choice D rationale
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is also administered via injection. For clients unable to perform self-injections, this medication would not be the most appropriate option for home management of DVT.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions, but it is not a vasodilator used for hypertensive crises.
Choice B rationale
Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to manage type 2 diabetes and has no role in treating hypertension or hypertensive crises.
Choice C rationale
Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to manage hypertension and heart failure, but it is not typically used for hypertensive crises.
Choice D rationale
Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator used to rapidly lower blood pressure in hypertensive crises. It works by dilating blood vessels, thus reducing blood pressure effectively. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Morphine has a high potential for abuse due to its euphoric effects and the risk of developing physical dependence and addiction with prolonged use.
Choice B rationale
Morphine acts as an agonist on the mu and kappa receptors in the central nervous system, providing analgesic effects by altering the perception of and response to pain.
Choice C rationale
Morphine is a potent analgesic that is more effective than butorphanol, which is a mixed agonist-antagonist with less potency and a ceiling effect on pain relief.
Choice D rationale
Morphine is primarily used for pain management and is not indicated for preventing fevers.
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