A nurse is caring for an older adult client with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in a long-term care facility. The client is nonverbal and unable to communicate discomfort or changes in urinary habits. During a routine assessment, the nurse notes increased confusion, fever, and foul-smelling urine in the client. What should be the nurse's immediate action?
Perform a bladder scan to check for urinary retention
Start the client on an increased fluid intake regimen
Notify the healthcare provider immediately to order a urine culture and initiate antibiotic treatment
Administer acetaminophen to reduce the fever
The Correct Answer is C
A. Perform a bladder scan to check for urinary retention: While urinary retention may be a concern, the client's symptoms (confusion, fever, foul-smelling urine) indicate a possible UTI, which should be addressed first.
B. Start the client on an increased fluid intake regimen: While fluid intake is important, the client needs immediate medical attention to diagnose and treat a possible infection.
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately to order a urine culture and initiate antibiotic treatment: Correct. The client's symptoms suggest a urinary tract infection, which requires prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics.
D. Administer acetaminophen to reduce the fever: While fever management is important, it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is likely a UTI.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Fungal infections: Fluoroquinolones are not used to treat fungal infections; antifungal medications are required for such infections.
B. Viral infections: Fluoroquinolones are not effective against viral infections, as they are antibiotics targeting bacterial infections.
C. Parasitic infections: Fluoroquinolones are not used for treating parasitic infections.
D. Urinary tract infections: Fluoroquinolones are commonly prescribed for urinary tract infections due to their effectiveness against common urinary pathogens.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Metabolic acidosis: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that promotes the excretion of bicarbonate, leading to a decrease in bicarbonate levels and resulting in metabolic acidosis.
B. Metabolic alkalosis: Acetazolamide causes a decrease in bicarbonate, which would lead to acidosis, not alkalosis.
C. Hyperbicarbonatemia: Acetazolamide reduces bicarbonate reabsorption, leading to a decrease in bicarbonate levels, not an increase.
D. Hypercalcemia: Acetazolamide does not cause hypercalcemia; it affects acid-base balance and bicarbonate levels.
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