A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan?

Give a dose of alendronate.

Administer furosemide.

Apply a cardiac monitor.

Monitor for Chvostek's sign.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Give a dose of alendronate is incorrect. Alendronate is a medication used to treat osteoporosis, and it does not address low potassium levels. In this case, the focus should be on correcting the potassium imbalance.

B. Administer furosemide is incorrect. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause further loss of potassium. In a client with low potassium levels (hypokalemia., administering furosemide could worsen the condition and lead to life-threatening complications.

C. Apply a cardiac monitor is correct. Hypokalemia (potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L) can cause significant cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Applying a cardiac monitor is essential for monitoring the client’s heart rhythm and detecting any abnormalities related to the low potassium level.

D. Monitor for Chvostek's sign is incorrect. Chvostek's sign is indicative of hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. While both hypocalcemia and hypokalemia can cause neuromuscular excitability, monitoring for Chvostek’s sign is not a priority in the management of hypokalemia.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. WBC 13,000/mm3 is slightly elevated and might indicate an infection, but it is not critically high in the context of COPD. The nurse should still monitor the client for signs of infection but is unlikely to require immediate intervention.

B. Potassium 3.7 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and does not require reporting.

C. Hgb 20 g/dL is elevated and should be reported. High hemoglobin levels can indicate dehydration, polycythemia, or other conditions related to chronic hypoxia, which is common in COPD. This value is above the normal range (12–18 g/dL for adults) and requires further evaluation.

D. Iron 150 mcg/dL is within the normal range (50–170 mcg/dL for adults) and does not require reporting.

A. A client who has a sodium intake of 1,200 mg/day. B. A client who has a serum albumin level of 4.5 g/dL. C. A client who has a body mass index of 32. D. A client who has a total fat intake of 25% of daily calories.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A client who has a sodium intake of 1,200 mg/day.: A sodium intake of 1,200 mg/day is actually within the recommended range for most adults. Therefore, this client does not require a dietitian’s consultation based on this information alone.

B. A client who has a serum albumin level of 4.5 g/dL.: A serum albumin level of 4.5 g/dL is within the normal reference range. There is no immediate concern with this level, so an interprofessional care conference is not necessary for this client.

C. A client who has a body mass index of 32.: A BMI of 32 is classified as obese, which can increase the risk of various health problems. A dietitian’s input can help address dietary modifications to manage weight and improve health outcomes, making an interprofessional care conference appropriate.

D. A client who has a total fat intake of 25% of daily calories.: A fat intake of 25% is within the acceptable range for most adults and does not immediately warrant a referral to a dietitian unless there are other concerns.

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A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan?

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