A nurse is explaining the pathophysiology of hematuria to a client. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes a common underlying mechanism of hematuria?
"Hematuria is primarily caused by excessive blood clotting within the urinary tract."
"Inflammation and damage to the blood vessels in the kidneys or urinary tract can result in hematuria."
"Hematuria is primarily a result of bacterial infections in the bladder."
"The primary cause of hematuria is the presence of kidney stones in the urinary system."
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect. Excessive blood clotting is not a common underlying mechanism of hematuria.
B) Correct. Inflammation and damage to blood vessels in the urinary tract or kidneys can lead to the leakage of blood into the urine, causing hematuria.
C) Incorrect. While bacterial infections can cause hematuria, they are not the primary underlying mechanism.
D) Incorrect. Kidney stones can cause hematuria, but they are not the primary cause of hematuria itself.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Antifungal antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections and are not typically prescribed for UTIs.
B) Correct. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are prescribed for UTIs when the specific bacteria causing the infection are not known, and they can help resolve hematuria associated with the infection.
C) Incorrect. Antiviral antibiotics are used to treat viral infections, not bacterial UTIs.
D) Incorrect. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics target specific types of bacteria and may not be as effective in treating a wide range of UTI-causing bacteria.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Age can be a risk factor for hematuria, especially in older individuals.
B) Correct. Men are at a higher risk of developing hematuria compared to women.
C) Incorrect. A family history of kidney disease can be a risk factor for hematuria.
D) Incorrect. Smoking is associated with an increased risk of hematuria and kidney problems.
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