A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?
Captopril PO
Hydralazine (Apresoline) 25 mg PO
Minoxidil 20 mg PO
Sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress) IV
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Captopril PO is used for chronic hypertension, not acute crises, due to slower onset. IV nitroprusside acts rapidly to control severe hypertension, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Hydralazine PO has a slower onset, unsuitable for hypertensive crisis requiring immediate control. IV nitroprusside is faster and titratable, making this incorrect for acute management.
Choice C reason: Minoxidil PO is for refractory hypertension, not emergencies, due to delayed action. Sodium nitroprusside IV is preferred for rapid control, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Sodium nitroprusside IV is the drug of choice for hypertensive crisis, offering rapid, titratable blood pressure reduction. This aligns with urgent needs, making it the correct choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Beta blockers decrease renin release, reducing angiotensin II and aldosterone, which lowers blood pressure. This statement is accurate, reflecting correct understanding, so it does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice B reason: Beta blockers do not primarily decrease peripheral vascular resistance; they reduce heart rate and contractility. Peripheral resistance is more affected by alpha blockers or vasodilators, so this incorrect statement indicates a need for further teaching.
Choice C reason: Beta blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility, decreasing cardiac output and blood pressure. This statement is correct, showing proper understanding, so it does not require additional teaching.
Choice D reason: While beta blockers do not directly block angiotensin II, they reduce its production by decreasing renin. The statement is imprecise but not entirely wrong, making it less indicative of a teaching need than choice B.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Enteral (oral) administration typically has slower absorption than intravenous routes due to first-pass metabolism in the liver and variable gastric emptying. While effective for many drugs, it’s not faster than parenteral routes, making this choice incorrect for describing the primary advantage of enteral administration.
Choice B reason: Some enteral drugs are inactivated by digestive enzymes or liver metabolism (first-pass effect), not prevented. Special formulations (e.g., enteric-coated) may protect drugs, but this isn’t a general advantage of the enteral route, which often faces enzymatic degradation, making this choice inaccurate.
Choice C reason: Enteral administration does not offer superior control of serum drug levels compared to intravenous routes, which provide precise dosing and immediate bioavailability. Oral drugs face variable absorption and first-pass metabolism, leading to less predictable levels, making this choice incorrect for enteral benefits.
Choice D reason: Enteral administration is safer (avoids injection risks like infection), less expensive (no need for sterile equipment), and more convenient (self-administered at home). These advantages make it preferable for many drugs, aligning with patient compliance and cost-effectiveness, making this the correct choice for the nurse’s response.
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