A nurse is preparing to administer Acetaminophen to a pediatric patient for pain management.
The child’s mother expresses concern about the medication, asking the nurse how it works.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appropriate?
“Acetaminophen works by increasing the body’s production of natural painkillers.”..
“Acetaminophen works by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis, which helps reduce pain and fever.”..
“Acetaminophen works by blocking the action of a specific enzyme in the body.”..
“Acetaminophen works by reducing the production of substances that cause inflammation and pain.”..
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is Choice B
Choice A rationale: Acetaminophen does not stimulate endogenous opioid production or increase natural painkillers like endorphins. Endorphins are peptides produced by the pituitary gland and hypothalamus during stress or pain, but acetaminophen lacks direct action on these pathways. Its analgesic effect is not mediated through opioid receptors. Therefore, this explanation misrepresents the pharmacodynamics of acetaminophen, which does not modulate endogenous painkiller synthesis. The mechanism is more central and prostaglandin-related, not involving increased production of natural analgesics.
Choice B rationale: Acetaminophen primarily acts by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, especially COX-2, in the central nervous system. This inhibition reduces the synthesis of prostaglandins, which are lipid compounds that sensitize nociceptors and mediate fever via the hypothalamus. By lowering prostaglandin levels centrally, acetaminophen effectively reduces pain and fever without significant anti-inflammatory effects. Normal prostaglandin levels vary, but elevated levels correlate with inflammation and pyrexia. This central COX inhibition explains its analgesic and antipyretic properties.
Choice C rationale: While partially correct, this explanation lacks specificity. Acetaminophen inhibits the COX enzyme, particularly a variant known as COX-3 in the brain, but it does not block all enzymes indiscriminately. The term “specific enzyme” is vague and could mislead patients into thinking it targets a unique or singular enzyme unrelated to prostaglandin synthesis. The scientific mechanism involves selective central inhibition of prostaglandin-producing enzymes, not broad enzymatic blockade. Therefore, the explanation is incomplete and lacks clarity.
Choice D rationale: This explanation implies peripheral anti-inflammatory action, which acetaminophen does not possess. Unlike NSAIDs, acetaminophen has minimal effect on peripheral COX enzymes and does not significantly reduce inflammation. It lacks efficacy in conditions requiring anti-inflammatory action, such as arthritis. Substances like prostaglandins and leukotrienes mediate inflammation, but acetaminophen’s action is limited to central prostaglandin inhibition. Thus, describing it as reducing inflammatory substances is misleading, as it does not alter peripheral inflammatory pathways or markers like CRP or ESR.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not classified as a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
While it can help with pain relief and reduce fever, it does not have the anti-inflammatory properties typically associated with NSAIDs.
Choice C rationale:
Morphine and Fentanyl are both opioid medications, not NSAIDs.
They are used for pain relief but have a different mechanism of action compared to NSAIDs.
Choice D rationale:
Fentanyl is also an opioid medication, not an NSAID.
It is used for severe pain management, especially in cases where other pain medications are not effective.
It does not have the anti-inflammatory properties of NSAIDs.
The correct answer is choice B because Ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin) is classified as a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
NSAIDs like ibuprofen are known for their anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic properties.
They work by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins, which are mediators of pain and inflammation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Opioids do not inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins.
Prostaglandins are chemicals that play a role in the perception of pain and inflammation, but opioids work through a different mechanism.
They bind to opioid receptors in the body.
Choice B rationale:
Opioids do not block the release of histamine.
Histamine is involved in allergic reactions and inflammation, but it is not the primary target of opioids.
Opioids primarily bind to opioid receptors.
Choice D rationale:
Opioids do not stimulate the central nervous system to reduce pain and inflammation.
In fact, opioids often have a depressant effect on the central nervous system, leading to sedation and respiratory depression.
Their main action is through binding to opioid receptors.
The correct answer is choice C because opioids work by binding to opioid receptors, which alters the perception of pain.
Opioid receptors are found in the central and peripheral nervous systems, and when opioids bind to these receptors, they modulate pain perception, leading to pain relief.
This mechanism is how opioids exert their analgesic effects.
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