A nurse is preparing to administer erythromycin PO to a client who has an infection. The nurse checks the client's medical record and notes that the client has a severe allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Request a different medication from the provider.

Premedicate the client with diphenhydramine.

Administer the medication to the client.

Request a different route of administration from the provider.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Request a different medication from the provider: Erythromycin is an alternative to penicillin for patients with penicillin allergies and can be administered safely.
B. Premedicate the client with diphenhydramine: This is not necessary unless the client has a history of allergic reactions to erythromycin or other antibiotics.
C. Administer the medication to the client: Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic and is safe for clients who are allergic to penicillin.
D. Request a different route of administration from the provider: The route of administration (oral) is appropriate unless there is a specific concern.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. "Your child will receive another MMR immunization and the hepatitis B immunization at 3 years of age.": The next MMR immunization is typically at 4-6 years, not 3 years.
B. "Your child will receive two more MMR immunizations over the next 2 years.": Only one more MMR vaccine is given at 4-6 years of age.
C. "Your child will receive another MMR immunization at 4 to 6 years of age.": The second dose of MMR is given between 4-6 years of age.
D. "Your child will have an MMR titer taken to determine the need for further immunizations.": Routine titers are not required for MMR unless there is a specific concern.

A. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds (30-40 seconds). B. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 (0.8 to 1.1). C. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds (30-40 seconds). D. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 (0.8 to 1.1).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds (30-40 seconds).: This is significantly elevated and indicates a risk for bleeding, as the therapeutic range for heparin is typically 1.5–2.5 times the normal value.
B. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 (0.8 to 1.1): This is within the therapeutic range for most conditions treated with warfarin (e.g., 2.0–3.0).
C. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds (30-40 seconds): This is slightly elevated but still within the therapeutic range for heparin (typically 60–80 seconds).
D. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 (0.8 to 1.1): This is within the therapeutic range for most warfarin indications.

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A nurse is preparing to administer erythromycin PO to a client who has an infection. The nurse checks the client's medical record and notes that the client has a severe allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

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