A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has an electrolyte imbalance. Which of the following foods should the nurse include as the highest in potassium?

The correct answer is choice A. Persistent headache, B. Nausea and vomiting, C. Right epigastric pain, G. Proteinuria 2+, H. Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) 3+ bilaterally. Choice A rationale: Persistent headache is a significant symptom that can indicate increased intracranial pressure or other serious conditions, especially in a pregnant client. It requires follow-up to rule out complications such as preeclampsia. Choice B rationale: Nausea and vomiting, particularly when severe and persistent, can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. In the context of pregnancy, it can also be a sign of a more serious underlying condition that needs to be addressed. Choice C rationale: Right epigastric pain is concerning as it can be indicative of liver involvement, which is a serious complication in pregnancy. This symptom needs immediate follow-up to assess for conditions such as HELLP syndrome. Choice D rationale: Slight facial edema can be a normal finding in pregnancy, but it can also be a sign of fluid retention associated with preeclampsia. However, on its own, it is not as critical as the other symptoms listed. Choice E rationale: A heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range for adults and does not typically require follow-up unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. Choice F rationale: Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is elevated and concerning in pregnancy, but it is not included in the correct answers because the other symptoms are more directly indicative of severe complications. Choice G rationale: Proteinuria 2+ is a significant finding that suggests kidney involvement and is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. This requires immediate follow-up. Choice H rationale: Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) 3+ bilaterally are hyperactive and can indicate neurological irritability, which is a concerning sign in the context of preeclampsia. This finding needs follow-up to prevent complications such as seizures. Choice I rationale: Fundal height measurement of 26 cm at 30 weeks of gestation is below the expected range and may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or other issues, but it is not as immediately critical as the other findings listed.

Choice A option:

Dietitian should not be consulted: The dietitian is an essential team member and will work closely with the client to ensure proper nutrition and dietary management. However, in the context of dysphagia, the speech-language pathologist's expertise is needed to determine safe swallowing strategies and food modifications.

Choice B option:

Physical therapist should not be consulted: The physical therapist focuses on maintaining and improving the client's physical function and mobility. While important in ALS management, the physical therapist's role is not directly related to the immediate issue of dysphagia.

Choice C option:

The speech-language pathologist is the correct answer because it specializes in assessing and treating communication and swallowing disorders. In this case, the speech-language pathologist is essential in evaluating the client's swallowing function, recommending appropriate dietary modifications (texture and consistency of foods), and implementing swallowing exercises or strategies to improve swallowing safety.

Choice D option:

Occupational therapist should not be consulted: The occupational therapist assists clients in regaining or maintaining independence in daily living activities. While the occupational therapist may address some aspects of mealtime activities and adaptive strategies, the speech-language pathologist is more specialized in evaluating and treating swallowing difficulties in clients with ALS.