A nurse is reviewing the diagnostic workup for a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which test should the nurse expect to be performed first to assess the client's risk for DVT?
D-dimer blood test.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Complete blood count (CBC).
Wells score assessment.
The Correct Answer is D
A) This choice is incorrect because while the D-dimer blood test is used to rule out DVT in low-risk individuals, the Wells score assessment is typically performed first to assess the client's pretest probability of DVT.
B) This choice is incorrect because magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is not typically used as an initial diagnostic test for DVT. It may be employed in specific cases but is not the first-line test.
C) This choice is incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) is a general blood test that does not directly assess the risk of DVT. It may provide information about overall health but is not specific to DVT assessment.
D) This choice is correct. The Wells score assessment is a validated tool used to estimate the likelihood of DVT based on clinical criteria and risk factors. It is commonly used as the first step in the diagnostic workup to determine if further testing, such as venous Doppler ultrasound or D-dimer blood test, is necessary.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Measuring the client's blood pressure is an important assessment but is not the immediate priority when preparing to administer enoxaparin.
B. Assessing the client's platelet count is critical before administering enoxaparin, especially because low molecular weight heparins can lead to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Monitoring platelet levels helps to ensure the client's safety and prevent complications.
C. Ensuring the client has an indwelling urinary catheter is not necessary for the administration of enoxaparin and does not relate to its safety or efficacy.
D. Obtaining the client's weight is relevant for dosing but is secondary to assessing the platelet count, particularly in light of the risk of HIT.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because advanced age is a non-modifiable risk factor for DVT. While age is associated with increased risk, it is not directly related to the client's use of hormonal therapy.
B) This choice is incorrect because male gender is not a risk factor for DVT. Women, particularly those on estrogen-based therapies like hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives, are at higher risk.
C) This choice is incorrect because smoking history is a modifiable risk factor for DVT, not directly related to hormonal therapy. Smoking increases the risk of clot formation and is not specific to the client's use of hormonal therapy.
D) This choice is correct. Estrogen-based hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives can increase the risk of DVT due to their effect on blood coagulation. Estrogen can increase the production of certain clotting factors, raising the risk of blood clot formation in the veins. It is essential for healthcare providers to weigh the benefits and risks when prescribing hormonal therapy to clients.
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