A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is prescribed tetracycline.
The nurse would be alert for an increased risk of toxicity if the client is taking which of the following?
Digoxin (Lanoxin).
Phenytoin (Dilantin).
Vancomycin (Vancocin).
Carbamazepine (Tegretol). .
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Tetracycline can increase the levels of digoxin (Lanoxin) in the blood, leading to an increased risk of digoxin toxicity. This interaction occurs because tetracycline can interfere with the metabolism and excretion of digoxin, causing higher concentrations of the drug in the bloodstream1. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, patients taking both medications should be closely monitored for signs of toxicity and may require dosage adjustments.
Choice B rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) does not have a significant interaction with tetracycline that increases the risk of toxicity. While both medications can be used together, they do not significantly affect each other's metabolism or excretion1.
Choice C rationale: Vancomycin (Vancocin) does not have a significant interaction with tetracycline that increases the risk of toxicity. Both medications can be used together without causing significant changes in their metabolism or excretion1.
Choice D rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) does not have a significant interaction with tetracycline that increases the risk of toxicity. While both medications can be used together, they do not significantly affect each other's metabolism or excretion
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Bloody diarrhea is not typically associated with a fungal superinfection. This symptom is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues and may be related to other causes such as infection or inflammatory bowel disease.
Choice B rationale:
Abdominal cramping is also not a typical sign of a fungal superinfection. It is more likely to be associated with gastrointestinal problems, food intolerances, or other conditions.
Choice D rationale:
Heartburn is not a common sign of a fungal superinfection. It is usually associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or other gastrointestinal issues. Creamy white patches on the throat (Choice C) are indicative of oral thrush, a fungal superinfection. This condition is caused by the overgrowth of Candida albicans and is commonly seen in individuals with compromised immune systems, such as those on immunosuppressive therapy or with HIV. It is important to recognize these white patches as they may require treatment with antifungal medications to prevent further complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Sedation Sedation is not typically associated with laxative use. Laxatives are primarily used to relieve constipation by promoting bowel movements, and sedation is not a common adverse reaction.
Choice B rationale:
Renal Impairment Renal impairment is a significant consideration when prescribing laxatives, especially those that may be excreted by the kidneys. In patients with renal impairment, there is a risk of drug accumulation, which could lead to potential adverse effects. The nurse should educate the client about this possibility to ensure their safety.
Choice C rationale:
Cramps Cramps are a possible adverse reaction to laxative use. Laxatives can cause gastrointestinal discomfort, including cramping and abdominal pain. However, it's essential to inform the client of this potential side effect so they can be prepared for it.
Choice D rationale:
Hepatic Impairment Hepatic impairment is not typically associated with adverse reactions to laxative use. Laxatives primarily affect the gastrointestinal system and do not directly impact the liver. Therefore, hepatic impairment is not a major concern when using laxatives.
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