A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is prescribed tetracycline.
The nurse would be alert for an increased risk of toxicity if the client is taking which of the following?
Digoxin (Lanoxin).
Phenytoin (Dilantin).
Vancomycin (Vancocin).
Carbamazepine (Tegretol). .
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Tetracycline can increase the levels of digoxin (Lanoxin) in the blood, leading to an increased risk of digoxin toxicity. This interaction occurs because tetracycline can interfere with the metabolism and excretion of digoxin, causing higher concentrations of the drug in the bloodstream1. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, patients taking both medications should be closely monitored for signs of toxicity and may require dosage adjustments.
Choice B rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) does not have a significant interaction with tetracycline that increases the risk of toxicity. While both medications can be used together, they do not significantly affect each other's metabolism or excretion1.
Choice C rationale: Vancomycin (Vancocin) does not have a significant interaction with tetracycline that increases the risk of toxicity. Both medications can be used together without causing significant changes in their metabolism or excretion1.
Choice D rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) does not have a significant interaction with tetracycline that increases the risk of toxicity. While both medications can be used together, they do not significantly affect each other's metabolism or excretion
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Drowsiness is not a common adverse reaction to cephalosporin antibiotics. It is more likely to be associated with medications that have sedative effects.
Choice B rationale:
Headache is a possible adverse reaction to cephalosporins, but it is not a common or specific symptom that the patient needs to report. Headaches are a relatively mild and self-limiting side effect.
Choice C rationale:
Constipation is not a typical adverse reaction to cephalosporin therapy. Gastrointestinal side effects associated with these antibiotics are more commonly diarrhea or nausea. Hypertension (Choice D) is a potential adverse reaction to cephalosporin antibiotics, particularly in patients who are sensitive to changes in blood pressure. It's important for the patient to recognize this symptom and report it promptly, as uncontrolled hypertension can lead to serious health problems. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering a combination of drugs in TB treatment is not primarily aimed at preventing the incidence of liver dysfunction. The combination therapy's main objective is to address the complex nature of Mycobacterium tuberculosis infections and the potential development of antibiotic resistance.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should explain that the primary reason for administering a combination of drugs is to slow down bacterial resistance. When TB is treated with a single drug, the bacteria can quickly develop resistance to that drug. Using a combination of drugs with different mechanisms of action makes it more difficult for the bacteria to develop resistance. This is a fundamental principle in the treatment of TB.
Choice C rationale:
Slowing the body's resistance to medication is not a goal in TB treatment. The focus is on preventing the development of resistance in the bacteria, not the body's response to the medication.
Choice D rationale:
While TB treatment aims to prevent the further spread of the disease, the primary reason for using a combination of drugs is to address bacterial resistance. Preventing the spread of TB is an important secondary benefit of effective treatment.
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