A nurse is reviewing the signs and symptoms of a fungal superinfection with a client.
The client demonstrates understanding of the information when he identifies which of the following as suggesting a fungal superinfection?
Bloody diarrhea.
Abdominal cramping.
Creamy white patches on the throat.
Heartburn.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Bloody diarrhea is not typically associated with a fungal superinfection. This symptom is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues and may be related to other causes such as infection or inflammatory bowel disease.
Choice B rationale:
Abdominal cramping is also not a typical sign of a fungal superinfection. It is more likely to be associated with gastrointestinal problems, food intolerances, or other conditions.
Choice D rationale:
Heartburn is not a common sign of a fungal superinfection. It is usually associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or other gastrointestinal issues. Creamy white patches on the throat (Choice C) are indicative of oral thrush, a fungal superinfection. This condition is caused by the overgrowth of Candida albicans and is commonly seen in individuals with compromised immune systems, such as those on immunosuppressive therapy or with HIV. It is important to recognize these white patches as they may require treatment with antifungal medications to prevent further complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Constipation is a potential adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate (Feosol), an iron supplement. Iron can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, including constipation, due to its effect on slowing down bowel movements and hardening of stool. It is important for the nurse to discuss this with the client before administering the drug to ensure the client is aware of this potential side effect.
Choice B rationale:
Fluid retention is not a common adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate. In fact, iron supplements are more likely to cause gastrointestinal issues like constipation rather than fluid retention.
Choice C rationale:
Fatigue is not a direct adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate. In some cases, iron deficiency can lead to fatigue, but this is usually a result of the underlying condition and not the medication itself.
Choice D rationale:
Clay-colored stools are not a typical adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate. This may indicate a potential issue with liver function or biliary obstruction but is not directly related to the iron supplement.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Antiviral drugs are metabolized in the liver, and hepatic impairment can affect the metabolism and elimination of these drugs. Therefore, the nurse should administer antiviral therapy cautiously to clients with hepatic impairment to prevent potential drug toxicity. Hepatic impairment can alter the pharmacokinetics of antiviral drugs, leading to increased drug levels in the bloodstream.
Choice B rationale:
Renal impairment is not typically a contraindication for antiviral therapy. While some medications may require dose adjustments in patients with renal impairment, it is not a general concern for antiviral drugs. The primary organ responsible for the metabolism of antiviral drugs is the liver.
Choice C rationale:
Diabetes and hypertension are chronic medical conditions that are not directly related to the administration of antiviral therapy. These conditions do not significantly impact the pharmacokinetics or pharmacodynamics of antiviral drugs. Therefore, they are not primary factors to consider when administering antiviral therapy.
Choice D rationale:
Hypertension, like diabetes, is not directly related to the administration of antiviral therapy. Antiviral drugs primarily interact with the liver's metabolic pathways, and hypertension does not have a significant impact on drug metabolism.
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