A patient is distressed to learn that a sibling is diagnosed with both neurologic and cognitive manifestations of Huntington disease. When the patient asks the nurse how to determine the incidence of the disease, which answer is most appropriate?
"All family members are now at risk for the disease."
"Only your children need to be tested for a genetic connection."
"If you are not diagnosed by age 20, you are considered safe."
"You definitely need to have genetic testing for the disease."
The Correct Answer is A
A. Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, meaning that if one parent has the gene, each child has a 50% chance of inheriting it. Therefore, all family members are at risk for the disease.
B. While genetic testing may be relevant for the patient’s children, it is not limited only to them. The patient and other family members are also at risk and may choose to be tested.
C. Huntington disease typically manifests between ages 30 and 50, and there is no age cutoff for determining risk. Early diagnosis may occur, but not being diagnosed by age 20 does not rule out the disease.
D. While genetic testing can confirm the presence of the gene, it is not the only way to determine risk. Family history and clinical symptoms are also key factors in understanding the risk for Huntington disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Increased LOC (level of consciousness) and increased range of motion are not typical symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). In fact, ICP usually leads to a decreased level of consciousness, not an increase.
B. Restlessness, irritability, and decreased LOC are early signs of increased intracranial pressure. As pressure inside the skull rises, the brain becomes less able to function normally, leading to changes in behavior and cognition, such as restlessness and irritability, followed by a decrease in consciousness.
C. Pain in the calf and neck is not a typical symptom of ICP. While neck pain may occur with certain neurological conditions, it is not a hallmark of increased intracranial pressure.
D. Fever and chills are not initial symptoms of ICP. These symptoms are more indicative of infection, such as meningitis, rather than increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Weakness in the lower body is not an accurate description of paraplegia. Paraplegia refers to the loss of function, not just weakness.
B. Paraplegia refers to the loss of motor and sensory function in the lower body, including the legs, due to a spinal cord injury, typically below the level of the injury. This is the most accurate response.
C. Temporary loss of motor and sensory functions is more characteristic of conditions like spinal shock, not paraplegia. Paraplegia refers to permanent impairment following spinal cord injury.
D. The description of loss of movement from the neck down is characteristic of quadriplegia (or tetraplegia), not paraplegia, which specifically involves the lower body.
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