A patient is distressed to learn that a sibling is diagnosed with both neurologic and cognitive manifestations of Huntington disease. When the patient asks the nurse how to determine the incidence of the disease, which answer is most appropriate?
"All family members are now at risk for the disease."
"Only your children need to be tested for a genetic connection."
"If you are not diagnosed by age 20, you are considered safe."
"You definitely need to have genetic testing for the disease."
The Correct Answer is A
A. Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, meaning that if one parent has the gene, each child has a 50% chance of inheriting it. Therefore, all family members are at risk for the disease.
B. While genetic testing may be relevant for the patient’s children, it is not limited only to them. The patient and other family members are also at risk and may choose to be tested.
C. Huntington disease typically manifests between ages 30 and 50, and there is no age cutoff for determining risk. Early diagnosis may occur, but not being diagnosed by age 20 does not rule out the disease.
D. While genetic testing can confirm the presence of the gene, it is not the only way to determine risk. Family history and clinical symptoms are also key factors in understanding the risk for Huntington disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Delirium is an acute, temporary state of confusion, often caused by factors such as dehydration, infection, or metabolic disturbances. In this case, the elderly client’s confusion following vomiting and not eating or drinking for 2 days suggests that dehydration or an underlying illness is likely causing the delirium.
B. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive, degenerative condition that leads to chronic memory loss and cognitive decline. It does not typically cause sudden confusion, as seen in this case.
C. Huntington's disease is a genetic neurodegenerative disorder that causes motor dysfunction and cognitive decline. It does not present suddenly with confusion in an elderly client.
D. Parkinson's disease is a progressive neurological disorder that primarily affects motor function, causing tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. It does not typically present with sudden confusion or the symptoms described in this case.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Neck stiffness is a common symptom of a herniated cervical disc due to irritation of the surrounding tissues and nerve roots.
B. Pain in the neck is one of the hallmark symptoms of a cervical disc herniation, as the disc presses on the nerves in the cervical spine.
C. Low back pain is typically associated with lumbar disc herniation, not cervical disc herniation. A herniated cervical disc would more likely cause symptoms in the neck, shoulders, and arms.
D. Shoulder pain is a common symptom of a herniated cervical disc because the nerves that are compressed in the cervical spine also innervate the shoulders.
E. Tingling in the arms is a common symptom of a herniated cervical disc, as the disc can compress the nerves that supply sensation to the arms, leading to numbness and tingling.
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