A nurse is preparing to administer a medication and learns that it is a nonselective agonist. What does the nurse understand about this drug?

It directly activates receptors to affect a specific physiologic process.

It prevents receptor activation to affect a specific physiologic process.

It directly activates receptors to affect many physiologic processes.

It prevents receptor activation to affect many physiologic processes.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptors, not specific ones, leading to widespread effects. Specific processes are targeted by selective agonists, so this is incorrect for nonselective drugs.

Choice B reason: Nonselective agonists activate, not prevent, receptors. Prevention is the role of antagonists, so this is incorrect for a nonselective agonist’s mechanism of action.

Choice C reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptor types, affecting many physiologic processes (e.g., epinephrine). This broad action is their hallmark, making it the correct choice for the drug’s effect.

Choice D reason: Preventing receptor activation describes antagonists, not agonists. Nonselective agonists stimulate multiple processes, so this is incorrect for the drug’s pharmacological action.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, reduces intracranial pressure by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream. This is its primary use in head injuries, making it correct.

Choice B reason: Mannitol is not primarily for peripheral edema; it targets cerebral edema. Furosemide is used for peripheral fluid, so this is incorrect for mannitol’s purpose.

Choice C reason: Mannitol removes fluid, not restores it. extracellular fluid, aiming to reduce brain swelling. Restoring fluid is opposite its effect, so this is incorrect.

Choice D reason: Mannitol increases renal perfusion by promoting diuresis, not reducing it. Its main goal is intracranial pressure reduction, so this is incorrect.

A. Make sure you take antihistamines only when you have symptoms to minimize side effects B. First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine [Benadryl], are more effective C. Anticholinergic effects are more common with second-generation antihistamines D. You should take oral antihistamines daily during each allergy season to get maximum effects

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Taking antihistamines only with symptoms may reduce side effects but provides inconsistent relief, as histamine levels fluctuate. Daily use during allergy seasons prevents symptom onset, offering better control, especially for second-generation antihistamines with longer action, making this choice less effective.

Choice B reason: First-generation antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) are sedating and have more side effects than second-generation (e.g., loratadine), which are equally effective for allergies but less sedating. Claiming first-generation are more effective is incorrect, as second-generation are preferred, making this choice inaccurate.

Choice C reason: Anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth) are more common with first-generation antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) due to non-selective receptor binding. Second-generation antihistamines (e.g., cetirizine) are more selective for H1 receptors, reducing these effects, making this choice incorrect and opposite to pharmacological profiles.

Choice D reason: Daily oral antihistamines, especially second-generation (e.g., loratadine), during allergy seasons maintain steady histamine receptor blockade, preventing symptoms like sneezing and itching. This maximizes efficacy and improves quality of life, aligning with guidelines for seasonal allergies, making this the correct nurse response.

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A nurse is preparing to administer a medication and learns that it is a nonselective agonist. What does the nurse understand about this drug?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident sustained a severe head injury and is brought to the emergency department. The provider orders intravenous mannitol (Osmitrol). The nurse knows that this is given to:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient who has seasonal allergies in the spring and fall asks the nurse about oral antihistamines. Which response by the nurse is correct?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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