A patient with asthma is admitted to an emergency department with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a prolonged expiratory phase, tight wheezes, and an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. The patient reports using fluticasone [Flovent HFA] 110 mcg twice daily and has used 2 puffs of albuterol [Proventil HFA], 90 mcg/puff, every 4 hours for 2 days. The nurse will expect to administer which drug?
Intravenous theophylline, oxygen, and fluticasone [Flovent HFA] 220 mcg
Four puffs of albuterol, oxygen, and intravenous theophylline
Intravenous glucocorticoids, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium, and oxygen
Intramuscular glucocorticoids and salmeterol by metered-dose inhaler
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Theophylline is rarely used due to toxicity risks and less efficacy compared to beta-agonists. Increasing fluticasone dose doesn’t address acute exacerbations, as inhaled corticosteroids act slowly. Oxygen is appropriate, but this regimen lacks rapid-acting bronchodilators, making it inadequate for acute asthma management.
Choice B reason: Four puffs of albuterol via inhaler may be insufficient for severe asthma (90% saturation, wheezes). Theophylline is outdated, and nebulized treatments are more effective in emergencies. Oxygen is needed, but this combination lacks systemic steroids for inflammation, making it less optimal.
Choice C reason: Intravenous glucocorticoids reduce airway inflammation rapidly, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium provide synergistic bronchodilation, and oxygen corrects hypoxia (90% saturation). This aligns with guidelines for acute asthma exacerbations, addressing inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and oxygenation, making it the correct and comprehensive treatment choice.
Choice D reason: Intramuscular glucocorticoids are slower than intravenous for acute asthma. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta-agonist, is inappropriate for acute exacerbations, as it lacks rapid onset. Oxygen is needed, but this regimen doesn’t address immediate bronchoconstriction effectively, making it incorrect for emergency management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Theophylline is rarely used due to toxicity risks and less efficacy compared to beta-agonists. Increasing fluticasone dose doesn’t address acute exacerbations, as inhaled corticosteroids act slowly. Oxygen is appropriate, but this regimen lacks rapid-acting bronchodilators, making it inadequate for acute asthma management.
Choice B reason: Four puffs of albuterol via inhaler may be insufficient for severe asthma (90% saturation, wheezes). Theophylline is outdated, and nebulized treatments are more effective in emergencies. Oxygen is needed, but this combination lacks systemic steroids for inflammation, making it less optimal.
Choice C reason: Intravenous glucocorticoids reduce airway inflammation rapidly, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium provide synergistic bronchodilation, and oxygen corrects hypoxia (90% saturation). This aligns with guidelines for acute asthma exacerbations, addressing inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and oxygenation, making it the correct and comprehensive treatment choice.
Choice D reason: Intramuscular glucocorticoids are slower than intravenous for acute asthma. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta-agonist, is inappropriate for acute exacerbations, as it lacks rapid onset. Oxygen is needed, but this regimen doesn’t address immediate bronchoconstriction effectively, making it incorrect for emergency management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptors, not specific ones, leading to widespread effects. Specific processes are targeted by selective agonists, so this is incorrect for nonselective drugs.
Choice B reason: Nonselective agonists activate, not prevent, receptors. Prevention is the role of antagonists, so this is incorrect for a nonselective agonist’s mechanism of action.
Choice C reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptor types, affecting many physiologic processes (e.g., epinephrine). This broad action is their hallmark, making it the correct choice for the drug’s effect.
Choice D reason: Preventing receptor activation describes antagonists, not agonists. Nonselective agonists stimulate multiple processes, so this is incorrect for the drug’s pharmacological action.
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