Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who has diabetes. When will the nurse expect to administer this drug?
In the morning and at 4:00 PM
Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal
After meals and at bedtime
Once daily at bedtime
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin given once daily, not twice daily. Morning and 4:00 PM dosing is typical for intermediate-acting insulins, so this incorrect for glargine’s schedule.
Choice B reason: Rapid-acting insulins are given before meals, not glargine, which provides basal coverage. Glargine is dosed once daily, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Post-meal or after meals and bedtime dosing does not suit glargine’s 24-hour action. It’s given once daily, typically at bedtime, so this is incorrect for the administration timing.
Choice D reason: Insulin glargine is administered once daily, often at bedtime, to provide steady basal insulin coverage for 24 hours. This aligns with its pharmacokinetics, making it the correct choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Beta 1-adrenergic drugs, like dobutamine, stimulate beta-1 receptors in the heart, increasing cyclic AMP and calcium influx, enhancing myocardial contractility. This increases stroke volume by strengthening heart contractions, directly improving cardiac output, making this the correct choice for the drug’s mechanism of action.
Choice B reason: Cardiac afterload is the resistance the heart pumps against. Beta 1-adrenergic drugs don’t directly reduce afterload; they increase contractility. Increasing afterload would decrease stroke volume, opposing the drug’s purpose, making this choice incorrect for the drug’s effect on stroke volume.
Choice C reason: Venous return affects preload, not directly influenced by beta 1-adrenergic drugs. These drugs enhance contractility, increasing stroke volume independently of venous return. While preload impacts output, it’s not the primary mechanism of beta-1 stimulation, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D reason: Cardiac preload is the initial stretch of the heart, influenced by venous return. Beta 1-adrenergic drugs increase contractility, not preload, to boost stroke volume. Preload changes are secondary and not the primary action of these drugs, making this choice incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Agonists activate receptors, mimicking endogenous ligands, not preventing activation. The drug blocks receptors, so this is incorrect for the described action.
Choice B reason: Antagonists prevent receptor activation by blocking ligand binding, inhibiting effects. This matches the drug’s action, making it the correct term.
Choice C reason: Potent describes a drug’s strength, not its mechanism of preventing receptor activation. Antagonist defines the action, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Selective refers to targeting specific receptors, not preventing activation. Antagonist describes the functional role, so this is incorrect.
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