A person diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes experienced an episode of hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Dawn phenomenon involves morning hyperglycemia, not hunger, tachycardia, or confusion. Hypoglycemia from exercise causes these acute symptoms, so this is incorrect for the described episode in Type 1 diabetes.
Choice B reason: Hypoglycemia, often triggered by increased exercise, causes hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion due to low blood sugar. This matches the symptoms, making it the correct cause for the patient’s episode.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia causes thirst, urination, and fatigue, not tachycardia or confusion. Hypoglycemia from exercise aligns with the acute, neuroglycopenic symptoms described, so this is incorrect for the cause.
Choice D reason: Somogyi effect involves rebound hyperglycemia after nocturnal hypoglycemia, not acute symptoms like hunger and confusion. Exercise-induced hypoglycemia fits the immediate presentation, so this is incorrect for the cause.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) causes isolated thrombocytopenia due to autoimmune platelet destruction, leading to bleeding like petechiae. However, it does not typically cause prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, or DVT, making it inconsistent with Lorretta’s multi-system coagulopathy.
Choice B reason: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) involves microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and organ damage but typically presents with neurological or renal symptoms, not prolonged PT/aPTT or DVT. Lorretta’s coagulopathy and DVT history better align with another condition, making TTP incorrect.
Choice C reason: Hemophilia, a genetic clotting factor deficiency, causes prolonged aPTT but not thrombocytopenia, elevated D-dimer, or DVT. It primarily affects males and causes joint or muscle bleeds, not diffuse bleeding like Lorretta’s, making this an incorrect diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) involves widespread clotting and bleeding, causing thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, and petechiae. Lorretta’s DVT history and anticoagulant use may trigger DIC, with leg swelling indicating thrombosis, making this the correct diagnosis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis, causing symptoms like dizziness, paresthesia, or tetany due to decreased carbon dioxide levels. It does not cause renal colic, which involves severe, spasmodic flank pain typically from ureteral obstruction. This makes hyperventilation an incorrect cause for the patient’s acute pain presentation.
Choice B reason: Nephrolithiasis, or kidney stones, is the most likely cause of renal colic in a young male. Stones obstruct the ureter, triggering severe, intermittent flank pain radiating to the groin, often with hematuria or nausea. This matches the described acute pain, making nephrolithiasis the correct diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms.
Choice C reason: Urinary tract infections may cause dysuria, frequency, or suprapubic discomfort but rarely produce the severe, colicky flank pain characteristic of renal colic. While infections can coexist with stones, the primary presentation of acute, severe pain points to nephrolithiasis, making this a less likely primary cause.
Choice D reason: Trauma can cause renal pain or hematuria but typically presents with a history of injury and signs like bruising or hemodynamic instability. Renal colic’s hallmark is spontaneous, severe pain without trauma history, making trauma an unlikely cause for this patient’s acute presentation.
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