A person diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes experienced an episode of hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Dawn phenomenon involves morning hyperglycemia, not hunger, tachycardia, or confusion. Hypoglycemia from exercise causes these acute symptoms, so this is incorrect for the described episode in Type 1 diabetes.
Choice B reason: Hypoglycemia, often triggered by increased exercise, causes hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion due to low blood sugar. This matches the symptoms, making it the correct cause for the patient’s episode.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia causes thirst, urination, and fatigue, not tachycardia or confusion. Hypoglycemia from exercise aligns with the acute, neuroglycopenic symptoms described, so this is incorrect for the cause.
Choice D reason: Somogyi effect involves rebound hyperglycemia after nocturnal hypoglycemia, not acute symptoms like hunger and confusion. Exercise-induced hypoglycemia fits the immediate presentation, so this is incorrect for the cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Active lifestyle and community engagement are protective, not risk factors, for hip fractures. Small frame and age-related bone loss increase fracture risk, so this misidentifies beneficial factors as risks and is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Active lifestyle and social engagement may reduce risk, but the question asks for risk factors. Small frame and age-related bone loss are primary risks for Ms. Major’s fracture, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Healthy diet and social support are protective, not risk factors. Ms. Major’s small frame and age (60) increase bone density loss, elevating fracture risk, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Small frame and age-related bone density loss (at 60) increase Ms. Major’s hip fracture risk, as lower bone mass and aging weaken bones. These are key risk factors, making this correct.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blood in the chest cavity is a hemothorax, not a pneumothorax. Pneumothorax involves air entering the pleural space, disrupting lung expansion, while hemothorax involves blood accumulation, making this an incorrect explanation.
Choice B reason: A pneumothorax is air in the pleural space, causing lung collapse due to disrupted negative pressure. This can result from trauma or spontaneous rupture, leading to respiratory distress, making this the correct explanation of the condition.
Choice C reason: Pus in the pleural space is an empyema, typically from infection, not a pneumothorax. Pneumothorax involves air, not purulent fluid, causing lung collapse, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Choice D reason: Collapse of small airways occurs in conditions like bronchiolitis, not pneumothorax. Pneumothorax involves air in the pleural cavity, not airway obstruction, leading to lung collapse, making this an incorrect explanation.
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