Mrs. Bone is Caucasian, weighs 128 lb, and is 5 foot 3 inches tall. Given her family history, she is a good example of the part that genetics plays in a person’s peak bone mass. She is 68 years of age and postmenopausal. What are risk factors you see with Mrs. Bone, and for what disorder? (Select all that apply)
Osteosarcoma, age, weight, height, postmenopausal
Osteopenia, age, postmenopausal, race, height, weight
Osteoporosis, age, postmenopausal, race, height, weight
Osteomyelitis, age, weight, height
Mrs. Bone does not have any risk factors
Osteomalacia, age, weight, postmenopausal
Correct Answer : B,C
Choice A reason: Osteosarcoma is a bone cancer, not linked to age, weight, height, or menopausal status. Mrs. Bone’s risk factors (age, race, postmenopausal) align with osteopenia/osteoporosis, not cancer, so this is incorrect for her disorder and risks.
Choice B reason: Osteopenia, low bone density, is likely given Mrs. Bone’s age (68), postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight (128 lb), and height (5’3”). These increase fracture risk, making this a correct choice for her disorder and risk factors.
Choice C reason: Osteoporosis is a risk for Mrs. Bone due to her age, postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight, and height. These factors reduce bone mass, aligning with osteoporosis risk, making this a correct selection for her condition.
Choice D reason: Osteomyelitis, a bone infection, is unrelated to age, weight, or height. Mrs. Bone’s profile matches osteopenia/osteoporosis risk factors, not infection, so this is incorrect for her disorder and associated risks.
Choice E reason: Mrs. Bone has clear risk factors (age, postmenopausal, race, weight, height) for bone density disorders. Stating she has no risk factors ignores her profile, so this is incorrect for her condition and risks.
Choice F reason: Osteomalacia, caused by vitamin D deficiency, is less likely than osteopenia/osteoporosis given her risk factors. Age and postmenopausal status point to bone density issues, so this is incorrect for her primary disorder.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blood in the chest cavity is a hemothorax, not a pneumothorax. Pneumothorax involves air entering the pleural space, disrupting lung expansion, while hemothorax involves blood accumulation, making this an incorrect explanation.
Choice B reason: A pneumothorax is air in the pleural space, causing lung collapse due to disrupted negative pressure. This can result from trauma or spontaneous rupture, leading to respiratory distress, making this the correct explanation of the condition.
Choice C reason: Pus in the pleural space is an empyema, typically from infection, not a pneumothorax. Pneumothorax involves air, not purulent fluid, causing lung collapse, making this an incorrect description of the condition.
Choice D reason: Collapse of small airways occurs in conditions like bronchiolitis, not pneumothorax. Pneumothorax involves air in the pleural cavity, not airway obstruction, leading to lung collapse, making this an incorrect explanation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Infarction is permanent tissue death from prolonged blood loss, not temporary deprivation. Ischemia describes reversible reduced blood supply, matching the question, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ischemia is the temporary deprivation of blood supply to cells, causing reduced oxygen delivery but potentially reversible damage. This fits the description, making it the correct term.
Choice C reason: Necrosis is irreversible cell death, not temporary blood supply loss. Ischemia is the term for reversible deprivation, so this is incorrect for the described condition.
Choice D reason: Inflammation is a response to injury, not blood supply deprivation. Ischemia specifically refers to temporary reduced blood flow, so this is incorrect for the term.
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