Mrs. Bone is Caucasian, weighs 128 lb, and is 5 foot 3 inches tall. Given her family history, she is a good example of the part that genetics plays in a person’s peak bone mass. She is 68 years of age and postmenopausal. What are risk factors you see with Mrs. Bone, and for what disorder? (Select all that apply)
Osteosarcoma, age, weight, height, postmenopausal
Osteopenia, age, postmenopausal, race, height, weight
Osteoporosis, age, postmenopausal, race, height, weight
Osteomyelitis, age, weight, height
Mrs. Bone does not have any risk factors
Osteomalacia, age, weight, postmenopausal
Correct Answer : B,C
Choice A reason: Osteosarcoma is a bone cancer, not linked to age, weight, height, or menopausal status. Mrs. Bone’s risk factors (age, race, postmenopausal) align with osteopenia/osteoporosis, not cancer, so this is incorrect for her disorder and risks.
Choice B reason: Osteopenia, low bone density, is likely given Mrs. Bone’s age (68), postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight (128 lb), and height (5’3”). These increase fracture risk, making this a correct choice for her disorder and risk factors.
Choice C reason: Osteoporosis is a risk for Mrs. Bone due to her age, postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight, and height. These factors reduce bone mass, aligning with osteoporosis risk, making this a correct selection for her condition.
Choice D reason: Osteomyelitis, a bone infection, is unrelated to age, weight, or height. Mrs. Bone’s profile matches osteopenia/osteoporosis risk factors, not infection, so this is incorrect for her disorder and associated risks.
Choice E reason: Mrs. Bone has clear risk factors (age, postmenopausal, race, weight, height) for bone density disorders. Stating she has no risk factors ignores her profile, so this is incorrect for her condition and risks.
Choice F reason: Osteomalacia, caused by vitamin D deficiency, is less likely than osteopenia/osteoporosis given her risk factors. Age and postmenopausal status point to bone density issues, so this is incorrect for her primary disorder.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Latent phase follows seroconversion, not precedes infection. The correct sequence—exposure, infection, seroconversion, AIDS—reflects HIV progression. This option misorders the phases, making it incorrect for AIDS development.
Choice B reason: AIDS progresses through exposure (virus contact), infection (HIV enters body), seroconversion (antibody detection), and AIDS (advanced disease). This sequence accurately describes the disease’s history, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Symptomatic AIDS is not a distinct phase; AIDS itself is symptomatic. The standard progression includes exposure, infection, seroconversion, and AIDS, so “symptomatic AIDS” is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Window phase is part of seroconversion, not separate, and acute phase is early infection. The sequence—exposure, infection, seroconversion, AIDS—is clearer, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nerve damage from the prosthetic may cause local discomfort, but pain in the entire absent arm suggests phantom limb pain. This is less likely than neural misfiring, so it’s incorrect.
Choice B reason: Heart attack referred pain typically affects the left arm but is unlikely in a prosthetic limb. Phantom limb pain explains pain in the absent arm, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Muscle strain affects existing muscles, not a prosthetic arm. Phantom limb pain, from neural signals in the brain, explains pain in the missing limb, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Phantom limb pain occurs when the brain perceives pain in an amputated limb, common in prosthetic users. This matches Mr. Jones’s pain in his prosthetic arm, making it correct.
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