Mrs. Bone is Caucasian, weighs 128 lb, and is 5 foot 3 inches tall. Given her family history, she is a good example of the part that genetics plays in a person’s peak bone mass. She is 68 years of age and postmenopausal. What are risk factors you see with Mrs. Bone, and for what disorder? (Select all that apply)
Osteosarcoma, age, weight, height, postmenopausal
Osteopenia, age, postmenopausal, race, height, weight
Osteoporosis, age, postmenopausal, race, height, weight
Osteomyelitis, age, weight, height
Mrs. Bone does not have any risk factors
Osteomalacia, age, weight, postmenopausal
Correct Answer : B,C
Choice A reason: Osteosarcoma is a bone cancer, not linked to age, weight, height, or menopausal status. Mrs. Bone’s risk factors (age, race, postmenopausal) align with osteopenia/osteoporosis, not cancer, so this is incorrect for her disorder and risks.
Choice B reason: Osteopenia, low bone density, is likely given Mrs. Bone’s age (68), postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight (128 lb), and height (5’3”). These increase fracture risk, making this a correct choice for her disorder and risk factors.
Choice C reason: Osteoporosis is a risk for Mrs. Bone due to her age, postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight, and height. These factors reduce bone mass, aligning with osteoporosis risk, making this a correct selection for her condition.
Choice D reason: Osteomyelitis, a bone infection, is unrelated to age, weight, or height. Mrs. Bone’s profile matches osteopenia/osteoporosis risk factors, not infection, so this is incorrect for her disorder and associated risks.
Choice E reason: Mrs. Bone has clear risk factors (age, postmenopausal, race, weight, height) for bone density disorders. Stating she has no risk factors ignores her profile, so this is incorrect for her condition and risks.
Choice F reason: Osteomalacia, caused by vitamin D deficiency, is less likely than osteopenia/osteoporosis given her risk factors. Age and postmenopausal status point to bone density issues, so this is incorrect for her primary disorder.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A fracture is a break in the bone, as seen in the patient, but osteosarcoma is the underlying tumor causing the pathological fracture. Defining osteosarcoma as a fracture ignores its neoplastic nature, making this incorrect.
Choice B reason: A bone infection, or osteomyelitis, involves bacterial or fungal invasion, causing pain and inflammation. Osteosarcoma is a primary bone cancer, not an infection, with distinct histopathological features, making this an incorrect definition.
Choice C reason: Osteosarcoma is a malignant bone tumor, typically arising in long bones like the humerus, often causing pain, swelling, and pathological fractures. This matches the patient’s imaging findings and clinical presentation, making this the correct definition.
Choice D reason: A benign bone tumor, like an osteoma, does not metastasize or cause aggressive destruction. Osteosarcoma’s malignant nature leads to local invasion and potential metastasis, as implied by the fracture, making this incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Weight loss occurs in both DKA and HHNS due to prolonged hyperglycemia and fluid loss. Kussmaul respirations are specific to DKA’s acidosis, so this is incorrect for DKA-only.
Choice B reason: Kussmaul respirations, rapid and deep breathing, are unique to DKA, compensating for metabolic acidosis from ketones. HHNS lacks significant acidosis, making this the correct DKA-specific manifestation.
Choice C reason: Increased serum glucose is common to both DKA and HHNS, as both involve severe hyperglycemia. Kussmaul respirations are DKA-specific, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Fluid loss occurs in both DKA and HHNS due to osmotic diuresis. Kussmaul respirations are exclusive to DKA’s acidotic state, so this is incorrect.
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