Mrs. Bone is Caucasian, weighs 128 lb, and is 5 foot 3 inches tall. Given her family history, she is a good example of the part that genetics plays in a person’s peak bone mass. She is 68 years of age and postmenopausal. What are risk factors you see with Mrs. Bone, and for what disorder? (Select all that apply)
Osteosarcoma, age, weight, height, postmenopausal
Osteopenia, age, postmenopausal, race, height, weight
Osteoporosis, age, postmenopausal, race, height, weight
Osteomyelitis, age, weight, height
Mrs. Bone does not have any risk factors
Osteomalacia, age, weight, postmenopausal
Correct Answer : B,C
Choice A reason: Osteosarcoma is a bone cancer, not linked to age, weight, height, or menopausal status. Mrs. Bone’s risk factors (age, race, postmenopausal) align with osteopenia/osteoporosis, not cancer, so this is incorrect for her disorder and risks.
Choice B reason: Osteopenia, low bone density, is likely given Mrs. Bone’s age (68), postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight (128 lb), and height (5’3”). These increase fracture risk, making this a correct choice for her disorder and risk factors.
Choice C reason: Osteoporosis is a risk for Mrs. Bone due to her age, postmenopausal status, Caucasian race, low weight, and height. These factors reduce bone mass, aligning with osteoporosis risk, making this a correct selection for her condition.
Choice D reason: Osteomyelitis, a bone infection, is unrelated to age, weight, or height. Mrs. Bone’s profile matches osteopenia/osteoporosis risk factors, not infection, so this is incorrect for her disorder and associated risks.
Choice E reason: Mrs. Bone has clear risk factors (age, postmenopausal, race, weight, height) for bone density disorders. Stating she has no risk factors ignores her profile, so this is incorrect for her condition and risks.
Choice F reason: Osteomalacia, caused by vitamin D deficiency, is less likely than osteopenia/osteoporosis given her risk factors. Age and postmenopausal status point to bone density issues, so this is incorrect for her primary disorder.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Loss of short-term memory is a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease, as seen in the patient’s difficulty recalling recent events. This reflects early hippocampal damage, impairing new memory formation, making it a correct clinical manifestation for this diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Alzheimer’s disease is the most likely diagnosis, given progressive memory loss, word-finding difficulties, and an MMSE score of 20/30 in a 65-year-old. These symptoms align with Alzheimer’s neurodegenerative pattern, making this the correct diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Vascular dementia typically presents with stepwise cognitive decline and focal neurological signs, often with vascular risk factors. The patient’s gradual memory loss without such history better fits Alzheimer’s, making vascular dementia incorrect.
Choice D reason: Word-finding difficulties, as exhibited, are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s, reflecting language cortex involvement. This progressive aphasia, common in early stages, impairs communication, making it a correct clinical manifestation for this patient.
Choice E reason: Disorientation to time and place, though not explicitly stated, is a hallmark of Alzheimer’s, often emerging as memory declines. Given the patient’s MMSE score and symptoms, this is likely, making it a correct manifestation.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Red blood cells are not a direct measure of inflammation; they assess anemia or oxygen-carrying capacity. Inflammation is measured by WBC, ESR, and fever, which reflect immune activity and systemic response, so this is incorrect for inflammation measurement.
Choice B reason: White blood cells (WBC) increase during inflammation (leukocytosis), indicating immune activation. This is a standard laboratory measure of inflammatory processes, making it a correct choice for assessing inflammation in clinical practice.
Choice C reason: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures how quickly red blood cells settle, rising with inflammation due to increased proteins. It’s a common marker for inflammatory conditions, making it a correct selection for measuring inflammation.
Choice D reason: Fever is a clinical sign of inflammation, driven by cytokines like IL-6. It’s a systemic response measured via temperature, making it a correct choice for assessing inflammation alongside laboratory markers like WBC and ESR.
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