After change of shift, the nurse has the following patients on her assignment. Which one should she see first?
A 50-year-old with COPD and a Spo2 of 90%
A 72-year-old with pneumonia who needs his antibiotic
A 37-year-old with asthma who reported that he is still having shortness of breath after using his inhaler
A68-year-old on a CPAP who needs a sputum specimen sent to the lab
The Correct Answer is C
C. Persistent shortness of breath after using an inhaler could indicate an inadequate response to treatment or worsening asthma exacerbation. The nurse should therefore see this patient first.
A. In COPD patients pulse oximetry oxygen saturations of more than 90% are acceptable. In the treatment of exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), oxygen should be titrated to achieve a target oxygen saturation range of 88-92%. This results in a greater than twofold reduction in mortality, compared with the routine administration of high-concentration oxygen therapy.
B. Administering antibiotics can be prioritized, but it may not require immediate attention compared to addressing acute respiratory distress or hypoxemia.
D. Collecting a sputum specimen for laboratory analysis is important for diagnosing and managing respiratory infections, but it may not be as time-sensitive as addressing acute respiratory distress or hypoxemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the body's immune system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. As a result, the pancreas produces little to no insulin, which is essential for regulating blood glucose levels.
B. Type 1 diabetes is not reversible. It is a lifelong condition that requires ongoing management with insulin therapy. While diet, exercise, and weight management are important for overall health and can help manage blood glucose levels, they cannot reverse type 1 diabetes.
C. This description is characteristic of type 2 diabetes, not type 1. In type 2 diabetes, the body’s cells become resistant to the effects of insulin, and the pancreas may not produce enough insulin. In type 1 diabetes, the problem is the lack of insulin production due to autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta cells.
D. Insulin is not released into the gastrointestinal tract. Insulin is a hormone that is released into the bloodstream by the pancreas. Its primary role is to help regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into the body's cells for energy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Obesity and weight loss are more directly linked to type 2 diabetes but they are not primary factors in the management of type 1 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the autoimmune destruction of beta cells, leading to an absolute deficiency of insulin. Weight loss can improve insulin sensitivity, which might be relevant for type 2 diabetes or insulin resistance, but type 1 diabetes patients will always require exogenous insulin regardless of weight changes.
A. Patients with type 1 diabetes are at risk for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a serious condition caused by high blood glucose levels and ketone buildup due to insufficient insulin. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in preventing DKA.
B. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks the insulin- producing beta cells in the pancreas. A viral infection can sometimes trigger this autoimmune response in genetically susceptible individuals.
C. There is a genetic component to type 1 diabetes, and having a family history of the disease can increase the risk, although environmental factors also play a role.
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