Which of the following best describes illness anxiety disorder, formerly known as hypochondriac?
Overreaction of a medical symptom.
Faked symptoms.
Abnormal voluntary motor or sensory dysfunction.
Worry about health despite no symptoms.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Overreaction of a medical symptom. While individuals with illness anxiety disorder (IAD) may misinterpret normal bodily sensations as signs of serious illness, the key feature is excessive health-related worry in the absence of significant symptoms, rather than just overreacting to existing symptoms.
B. Faked symptoms. Feigning symptoms is characteristic of factitious disorder (formerly Munchausen syndrome) or malingering, where individuals intentionally produce or exaggerate symptoms for attention or external gain. In IAD, the concern is genuine but unfounded, rather than intentionally fabricated.
C. Abnormal voluntary motor or sensory dysfunction. This describes conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder), where individuals experience neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness, or seizures) without a medical explanation, typically triggered by psychological stress.
D. Worry about health despite no symptoms. Illness anxiety disorder (IAD) is marked by persistent, excessive fear of having a serious illness, despite minimal or no symptoms and repeated medical reassurance. Patients often engage in excessive health-related behaviors (e.g., frequent doctor visits, checking their body) or avoid medical care altogether due to fear of diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Lurasidone (Latuda) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic, not a third-generation antipsychotic. It primarily blocks dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) receptors and is used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar depression.
B. Cariprazine (Vraylar) is a third-generation antipsychotic, functioning as a partial dopamine (D2/D3) and serotonin (5-HT1A) receptor agonist. It is used for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and major depressive disorder (MDD) adjunctive treatment.
C. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic, not a third-generation antipsychotic. It works by strongly blocking D2 receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but lower metabolic side effects compared to atypical antipsychotics.
D. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a third-generation antipsychotic, known for its partial dopamine (D2) agonist properties. It has a lower risk of EPS and metabolic side effects compared to second-generation antipsychotics and is used for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and adjunctive treatment in depression.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Mesolimbic pathway is responsible for reward, motivation, and emotion. In schizophrenia, hyperactivity of this pathway leads to positive symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking.
B. Nigrostriatal pathway regulates motor control. Dopamine blockade in this pathway leads to extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tremors, rigidity, and tardive dyskinesia, which are side effects of first-generation antipsychotics (typical antipsychotics).
C. Tuberoinfundibular pathway controls prolactin secretion. Dopamine inhibits prolactin release, so blocking D2 receptors with antipsychotics leads to hyperprolactinemia, causing gynecomastia, galactorrhea, and menstrual irregularities.
D. Mesocortical pathway is responsible for cognition, motivation, and emotional regulation. In schizophrenia, hypoactivity of this pathway is linked to negative symptoms such as apathy, anhedonia, social withdrawal, and cognitive impairment. Antipsychotics that block dopamine further worsen these symptoms, making negative symptoms more difficult to treat.
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