Which of the following best describes acute phase of psychotic symptoms?
Stabilization phase
Maintenance phase
Prodromal phase
Acute phase
The Correct Answer is D
A. Stabilization phase. The stabilization phase occurs after the acute phase, when psychotic symptoms begin to improve with treatment. During this phase, the focus is on reducing symptom severity, medication adjustment, and preventing relapse.
B. Maintenance phase. The maintenance phase follows stabilization and involves long-term management to prevent relapse. During this phase, symptoms are either in remission or significantly reduced, and the goal is to ensure medication adherence, therapy, and social reintegration.
C. Prodromal phase. The prodromal phase precedes the acute phase and is marked by early warning signs such as social withdrawal, decreased motivation, mild paranoia, and subtle cognitive changes. It may last weeks to years before full-blown psychotic symptoms appear.
D. Acute phase. The acute phase is the period of full-blown psychotic symptoms, including hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and impaired functioning. This is the most severe phase, often requiring hospitalization and intensive treatment to stabilize the patient.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a leading preventable cause of intellectual disability. Prenatal alcohol exposure disrupts brain development, leading to cognitive impairment, behavioral problems, and facial abnormalities.
B. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is a genetic disorder that causes intellectual disability, developmental delays, and characteristic physical features. It results from an extra copy of chromosome 21, affecting brain development and cognitive function.
C. Serotonin syndrome is an acute, life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonin activity due to medication overdose or drug interactions (e.g., SSRIs, MAOIs, MDMA). Symptoms include hyperreflexia, autonomic instability, and altered mental status, but it does not cause intellectual disability.
D. Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome. It is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, leading to cognitive impairments, social anxiety, and hyperactivity, often resembling autism spectrum disorder (ASD).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic with a high risk of weight gain, metabolic syndrome, and sedation due to its strong antagonism of histamine (H1) and serotonin (5-HT2C) receptors. It can also cause sexual dysfunction due to its impact on dopamine and prolactin levels.
B. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) has a significant risk of weight gain and metabolic side effects, similar to clozapine. It is known to cause hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance, and increased appetite, contributing to obesity. Sexual dysfunction can occur but is less common than with prolactin-elevating antipsychotics.
C. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic with a high risk of sexual dysfunction due to prolactin elevation from strong dopamine (D2) receptor blockade. While it has a lower risk of weight gain than atypical antipsychotics, it carries a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
D. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a partial dopamine agonist and has the lowest risk of weight gain among atypical antipsychotics. It also has a minimal impact on prolactin levels, reducing the risk of sexual dysfunction. Due to its unique mechanism, it is often preferred for patients concerned about metabolic side effects and sexual health.
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