An older adult client with a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough. The client is anxious and is complaining of a dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Administer a prescribed sedative
Assist client to an upright position.
Encourage client to drink water
Apply a high-flow venturi mask.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administer a prescribed sedative:
Sedatives may depress the respiratory drive, which can be detrimental in a client with respiratory distress. It is not the appropriate intervention in this case.
B. Assist the client to an upright position.
Positioning the client upright helps improve respiratory mechanics by reducing the pressure on the diaphragm and allowing better lung expansion. This position can enhance the efficiency of breathing and alleviate symptoms of breathlessness.
C. Encourage the client to drink water:
While maintaining hydration is important, it may not directly address the immediate respiratory distress. Addressing the respiratory symptoms with an upright position is more crucial at this moment.
D. Apply a high-flow venturi mask:
While oxygen therapy may be necessary for a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the first step is to assist the client to an upright position to improve respiratory mechanics. Applying a high-flow venturi mask may be a subsequent intervention based on the overall assessment, but positioning is the initial priority.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Have the client sign the surgical and transfusion permits:
While obtaining signed consent is important, the immediate concern is addressing the client's medication history, especially the use of heparin, which can contribute to bleeding.
B. Ensure that the potential for bleeding is explained to the client:
Education about the potential for bleeding is important, but the immediate action is to communicate the client's medication history to the healthcare provider for appropriate guidance.
C. Observe the heparin injection sites for signs of bruising:
Monitoring for bruising at injection sites is a consideration, but it is not the priority when the client is actively bleeding from an open fracture.
D. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's medication history:
This is the correct answer. Heparin is an anticoagulant, and its use can increase the risk of bleeding during surgery. The healthcare provider needs to be informed of the client's current medication history to make decisions regarding the timing and management of heparin therapy in the perioperative period.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Initiate cardiac telemetry:
Cardiac telemetry is not the immediate priority in this case. Kidney stones are more likely to cause severe localized pain rather than cardiac-related symptoms.
B. Administer a PRN dose of a laxative:
Laxatives are not indicated for the management of kidney stones or the associated flank pain. The priority is to address the specific needs related to the possible passage of kidney stones.
C. Implement seizure precautions:
Seizure precautions are not relevant to the sudden onset of severe flank pain in the context of hyperparathyroidism. The focus should be on managing pain, assessing for kidney stone passage, and addressing the underlying cause.
D. Begin straining all urine.
Straining all urine allows for the collection and examination of any passed stones. This information is important for identifying the composition of the stones and guiding further management.
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