As part of the plan of care for a client with borderline personality disorder, the nurse reviews the day's schedule with him each morning. While doing so, the client states. "Why don't you shut up already! I can read it myself, you know!" Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

I know you can read it yourself, but will you?"

"We do this every day. Why are you so angry with me this morning?

“I expect you to speak to me in a civil tone of voice."

Fine. Here is the schedule. I expect you to be on time for your therapy sessions.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. "I know you can read it yourself, but will you?" This response may escalate the situation and may not effectively address the inappropriate tone. It also has the potential to be perceived as confrontational.

B. "We do this every day. Why are you so angry with me this morning?" This response is somewhat confrontational and may not be as effective in setting clear boundaries. It also focuses on the client's emotion without directly addressing the inappropriate tone.

C. “I expect you to speak to me in a civil tone of voice."

Option C sets clear boundaries and communicates the expectation of respectful communication. Addressing the inappropriate tone of voice is important in working with individuals with borderline personality disorder. It reinforces the importance of maintaining a therapeutic and respectful interaction.

D. "Fine. Here is the schedule. I expect you to be on time for your therapy sessions." While this response provides the information, it doesn't address the issue of the client's disrespectful tone. It's important to address the inappropriate behavior while still providing necessary information.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Elevated heart rate is not a typical sign of opioid toxicity. Opioids usually have a depressant effect on the cardiovascular system, leading to bradycardia.

B. Hypertension is not a typical effect of opioid toxicity. Opioids often cause hypotension due to vasodilation.

C. Pupillary constriction (miosis).
Acute fentanyl toxicity is associated with opioid overdose, and opioids typically cause miosis (constriction of the pupils). Other common symptoms of opioid toxicity include respiratory depression, sedation, and potentially unconsciousness.

D. Tachypnea is not a typical sign of opioid toxicity. Opioids tend to depress the respiratory system, leading to respiratory depression and potentially hypoventilation.

A. Sodium level B. Phosphate level C. Magnesium level D. Respiratory rate E. capillary refill F. Blood pressure G. Glucose level

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","F","G"]

Explanation

A. Sodium level:
Abnormal sodium levels can have serious consequences, including neurological symptoms. Immediate follow-up is necessary to assess and manage electrolyte imbalances, as severe cases can lead to complications such as seizures.

B. Phosphate level:
While phosphate levels are important to monitor, they may not require immediate follow-up unless severe abnormalities are present. Severe phosphate imbalances can occur in the context of malnutrition, but they may not necessitate immediate intervention in the ED unless critical.

C. Magnesium level:
Similar to phosphate, magnesium levels are crucial but may not demand immediate follow-up unless severe abnormalities are detected. While magnesium imbalances can occur in eating disorders, the urgency depends on the extent of the imbalance.

D. Respiratory rate:
Rapid or abnormal respiratory rates can be indicative of respiratory distress, which may occur in individuals with severe anorexia nervosa. Monitoring and addressing respiratory issues promptly are crucial for the client's respiratory function.

E. Capillary refill:
Capillary refill is included in the list of findings that require immediate follow-up. Prolonged capillary refill time indicates potential issues with peripheral perfusion and warrants prompt attention to assess and address any circulation concerns.

F. Blood pressure:
Abnormal blood pressure, especially low blood pressure, can indicate cardiovascular compromise, which is a concern in severe cases of anorexia nervosa. Monitoring and addressing abnormal blood pressure promptly are essential for the client's well-being.

G. Glucose level:
Anorexia nervosa can lead to hypoglycemia, and low glucose levels can result in various complications, including neurological symptoms. Immediate follow-up is necessary to assess and manage glucose levels for the well-being of the client

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As part of the plan of care for a client with borderline personality disorder, the nurse reviews the day's schedule with him each morning. While doing so, the client states. "Why don't you shut up already! I can read it myself, you know!" Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has been brought to the emergency department and is experiencing acute fentanyl toxicity. The nurse should expect to observe which of the following adverse effects in this client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","F","G"]

Explanation

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