At 1630 a Type I diabetic client's blood glucose level is 50 mg/dl. The client is alert; however, dinner will not be served until 1715. The nurse's initial action should be to:

monitor the client closely until dinner arrives.

have the client drink 4 oz. of orange juice.

give the client 3 tbsp. of sugar dissolved in 4 oz. of grape juice to drink.

have the client dissolve a small piece of hard candy in their mouth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   While monitoring is important, doing nothing to address the hypoglycemia is not safe. A blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL is low and requires immediate intervention to prevent more severe hypoglycemic symptoms or complications.
B.   This is a suitable option for treating mild to moderate hypoglycemia. Orange juice is a quick source of carbohydrates and can effectively raise blood glucose levels. Four ounces typically provides enough sugar to help increase the client's blood glucose level before dinner is served.
C.   While this option would also effectively raise blood glucose, it is more complicated than simply having the client drink orange juice. The sugar may take additional time to dissolve, and grape juice may not be readily available. In an acute situation, simplicity and speed are key.
D.   While hard candy can raise blood glucose levels, it may take longer to dissolve and provide sufficient glucose quickly compared to liquid sources like orange juice or grape juice. Additionally, the amount of candy needed may not be clear, making this a less reliable option in an urgent situation.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While skipping meals can affect blood glucose levels, it is not a direct primary cause of DKA. In some cases, if a person with Type 1 diabetes skips a meal and does not adjust their insulin accordingly, it could lead to hyperglycemia. However, the absence of insulin is the critical factor in DKA.
B. Gastrointestinal disturbances, such as vomiting or diarrhea, can contribute to DKA by leading to dehydration and altering insulin absorption. However, they are not primary causes. The main concern is that they may cause the individual to skip insulin or not manage their diabetes effectively.
C. DKA is primarily caused by a lack of insulin, which leads to the body breaking down fat for energy instead of glucose. This process produces ketones, which can accumulate and lead to acidosis. For individuals with Type 1 diabetes, consistently taking insulin is crucial to prevent DKA.
D. An insulin overdose can lead to hypoglycemia, not DKA. When too much insulin is taken, it can cause blood glucose levels to drop too low, which is the opposite of what occurs in DKA.

A. maintenance of a healthy weight B. use of low doses of insulin regular. C. oral hypoglycemic agents D. self-monitoring of blood glucose.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Teaching the client about maintaining a healthy weight is crucial, especially in preventing the progression from prediabetes to type 2 diabetes. Weight management through diet and exercise can significantly improve insulin sensitivity and glucose control.
B. At a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL, the client is not typically at the stage where insulin therapy is necessary. Insulin is usually reserved for individuals with established diabetes, particularly if they are unable to achieve glycemic control through lifestyle changes or oral medications.
C. Similar to option B, the use of oral hypoglycemic agents is not indicated for someone with a fasting glucose of 120 mg/dL. This level suggests prediabetes, and the initial approach is generally focused on lifestyle changes rather than medication.
D. While self-monitoring of blood glucose is important for individuals with diabetes, it may not be the immediate focus for a client with a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL unless the physician has indicated a diagnosis of diabetes or if the client has symptoms. In prediabetes, education around lifestyle modifications is typically prioritized.

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At 1630 a Type I diabetic client's blood glucose level is 50 mg/dl. The client is alert; however, dinner will not be served until 1715. The nurse's initial action should be to:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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