All of the following are eating or feeding disorders except
Avoidant restrictive food intake disorder
Pica
Rumination disorder
Food picking disorder
The Correct Answer is D
A. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID) is an eating disorder characterized by extreme food restriction, leading to nutritional deficiencies, weight loss, or dependence on supplements. Unlike anorexia, it is not driven by body image concerns but rather by sensory sensitivity, fear of choking, or lack of interest in eating.
B. Pica involves the persistent consumption of non-nutritive, non-food substances (e.g., chalk, paper, dirt) for at least one month. It is commonly associated with nutritional deficiencies (e.g., iron or zinc deficiency), pregnancy, and developmental disorders such as autism.
C. Rumination disorder is characterized by repeated regurgitation of food, which may be re-chewed, re-swallowed, or spit out. It is seen in infants, children, and individuals with intellectual disabilities and is not due to a gastrointestinal or medical condition.
D. Food picking disorder. There is no recognized disorder called "food picking disorder" in the DSM-5. While some individuals may display picky eating behaviors, this does not qualify as a clinical diagnosis unless it significantly impairs nutritional intake, as seen in ARFID.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) does not require food for absorption, but it has a high risk of sedation, weight gain, and metabolic side effects. It also requires regular blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocytosis.
B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) can be taken with or without food, as food does not significantly affect its absorption. It is a partial dopamine agonist, associated with a lower risk of weight gain and metabolic issues compared to other atypical antipsychotics.
C. Lurasidone (Latuda) must be taken with at least 350 calories of food to ensure proper absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach reduces its bioavailability, making it less effective. It is considered a weight-neutral antipsychotic and has a lower risk of metabolic side effects.
D. Haloperidol (Haldol) does not require food for absorption. It is a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) with a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but minimal metabolic effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
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