The daughter of a wheelchair-bound older adult client is concerned because her mother has been experiencing urinary incontinence. Which statement should the nurse use to explain the condition to the daughter?

Renal blood flow and ability to concentrate urine decrease in older adults

The kidneys reach maximum size at ages 35 to 40

Mobility issues may cause urinary incontinence

The frequency of voiding varies in older adults and may cause urinary incontinence

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Decreased renal blood flow and urine concentration in older adults can lead to reduced kidney efficiency, affecting fluid balance. However, these changes primarily cause issues like nocturia or polyuria, not directly incontinence. Incontinence in this context is more related to physical limitations than renal function, making this explanation less relevant.

Choice B reason: The statement about kidneys reaching maximum size at ages 35 to 40 is factually inaccurate and irrelevant to incontinence. Kidney size does not directly correlate with urinary control. Incontinence in older adults, especially those wheelchair-bound, is more likely due to mobility or neurological issues, not kidney size.

Choice C reason: Mobility issues, such as being wheelchair-bound, can cause urinary incontinence by limiting timely access to toileting facilities. This leads to functional incontinence, where physical limitations prevent reaching the bathroom. In older adults, reduced mobility exacerbates bladder control issues, making this the most accurate explanation for the daughter.

Choice D reason: Variations in voiding frequency may occur in older adults due to bladder changes or medications, but this does not directly cause incontinence. Frequency may contribute to urgency, but the primary issue in a wheelchair-bound client is likely mobility-related, making this explanation less precise than mobility issues.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent blood clotting factors, prolonging coagulation. Vitamin K reverses this by restoring factor synthesis in the liver, normalizing clotting. Administered orally or intravenously, it counteracts warfarin’s anticoagulant effect in cases of overdose or bleeding, making this the correct antidote.

Choice B reason: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, not warfarin. It binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effect by forming an inactive complex. Warfarin acts via a different mechanism (vitamin K inhibition), so protamine sulfate is ineffective, making this choice incorrect for warfarin overdose.

Choice C reason: Narcan (naloxone) reverses opioid overdoses by competitively binding to opioid receptors, restoring respiration. It has no effect on warfarin’s anticoagulant mechanism, which involves vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, making this choice irrelevant and incorrect for treating warfarin toxicity.

Choice D reason: Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepine overdoses by antagonizing their sedative effects at GABA receptors. It does not affect warfarin’s inhibition of clotting factor synthesis, which requires vitamin K to reverse. This makes flumazenil incorrect for managing warfarin-related bleeding or toxicity.

A. It occurs when I get bit by a tick or other insect B. It occurs when I come into contact with pathogens by breathing C. It occurs when I come in direct contact with a pathogen D. It occurs when I ingest food containing a disease-carrying organism

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Tick or insect bites represent vector-borne transmission, not airborne. Pathogens like Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease) are transmitted through insect saliva, not inhalation. Airborne transmission involves inhaling pathogen-laden droplets, making this statement incorrect for the described route.

Choice B reason: Airborne transmission occurs when pathogens, such as viruses or bacteria in aerosolized droplets, are inhaled into the respiratory tract. Diseases like tuberculosis or measles spread this way, making the patient’s statement about breathing in pathogens accurate and reflective of correct understanding.

Choice C reason: Direct contact transmission involves physical touch with an infected person or surface, not inhalation. Examples include MRSA spread via skin contact. This statement does not describe airborne transmission, which requires respiratory droplet inhalation, making it incorrect.

Choice D reason: Ingesting contaminated food involves foodborne transmission, not airborne. Pathogens like Salmonella enter the body through the gastrointestinal tract, not the lungs. This statement incorrectly describes the mechanism of airborne transmission, which relies on inhalation, making it incorrect.

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The daughter of a wheelchair-bound older adult client is concerned because her mother has been experiencing urinary incontinence. Which statement should the nurse use to explain the condition to the daughter?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the antidote for Warfarin (Coumadin)?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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