The daughter of a wheelchair-bound older adult client is concerned because her mother has been experiencing urinary incontinence. Which statement should the nurse use to explain the condition to the daughter?
Renal blood flow and ability to concentrate urine decrease in older adults
The kidneys reach maximum size at ages 35 to 40
Mobility issues may cause urinary incontinence
The frequency of voiding varies in older adults and may cause urinary incontinence
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Decreased renal blood flow and urine concentration in older adults can lead to reduced kidney efficiency, affecting fluid balance. However, these changes primarily cause issues like nocturia or polyuria, not directly incontinence. Incontinence in this context is more related to physical limitations than renal function, making this explanation less relevant.
Choice B reason: The statement about kidneys reaching maximum size at ages 35 to 40 is factually inaccurate and irrelevant to incontinence. Kidney size does not directly correlate with urinary control. Incontinence in older adults, especially those wheelchair-bound, is more likely due to mobility or neurological issues, not kidney size.
Choice C reason: Mobility issues, such as being wheelchair-bound, can cause urinary incontinence by limiting timely access to toileting facilities. This leads to functional incontinence, where physical limitations prevent reaching the bathroom. In older adults, reduced mobility exacerbates bladder control issues, making this the most accurate explanation for the daughter.
Choice D reason: Variations in voiding frequency may occur in older adults due to bladder changes or medications, but this does not directly cause incontinence. Frequency may contribute to urgency, but the primary issue in a wheelchair-bound client is likely mobility-related, making this explanation less precise than mobility issues.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increasing alprazolam dose without medical guidance is unsafe due to risks of dependence and overdose. Benzodiazepines require strict dosing to avoid respiratory depression, making this choice incorrect and dangerous for client discussion.
Choice B reason: Alprazolam provides rapid relief for anxiety within hours, not weeks, due to its fast-acting benzodiazepine properties on GABA receptors. Expecting relief after weeks is incorrect, as it misrepresents the drug’s pharmacokinetics, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C reason: Tyramine avoidance applies to MAOI antidepressants, not benzodiazepines like alprazolam. Tyramine causes hypertensive crises with MAOIs, not alprazolam, which affects GABA, making this choice irrelevant and incorrect for the discussion.
Choice D reason: Alprazolam can cause sedation and impaired coordination, affecting GABA receptors and slowing brain activity. Advising to avoid driving or machinery until its effects are known ensures safety, making this the correct topic for client education.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: An open fracture involves a break in the skin, allowing bone exposure to the external environment, increasing infection risk. This is the opposite of a fracture contained within the skin, as described in the question, making this choice incorrect for defining a contained fracture.
Choice B reason: A complete fracture refers to a bone broken into two or more separate pieces, regardless of skin involvement. It does not specifically indicate whether the fracture is contained within the skin, as it focuses on bone separation rather than soft tissue status, making it incorrect.
Choice C reason: A compression fracture involves the collapse of a vertebra, typically in the spine, often due to osteoporosis. It does not inherently specify whether the skin is intact. The term is too specific to spinal injuries and not general enough for the question’s description, making it incorrect.
Choice D reason: A closed fracture is a bone break where the skin remains intact, with no external wound. This matches the question’s description of a fracture contained within the skin. It is the standard term used in medical practice to describe such injuries, making it the correct choice.
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