The health care provider prescribes IV mannitol for a client with an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 22. How will the nurse determine that the medication had the intended effect?

Intracranial pressure (ICP) is now 15.

The patient voids 250 mL over 2 hours.

The patient's pupils are dilated and sluggish.

Seizure behavior is absent.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is now 15: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP). The intended effect of the medication is to lower ICP. A decrease in ICP to 15 mmHg is within the normal range and indicates the medication has worked effectively.

B. The patient voids 250 mL over 2 hours is incorrect. While mannitol promotes diuresis, the amount of urine output alone does not directly indicate a reduction in ICP. The goal is to lower ICP, which is best assessed by measuring the ICP itself.

C. The patient's pupils are dilated and sluggish is incorrect. Dilated and sluggish pupils can be a sign of increased ICP, not a response to effective treatment.

D. Seizure behavior is absent is incorrect. While mannitol can help reduce ICP and potentially prevent seizures, the absence of seizure behavior is not a direct indicator of the medication's effect on ICP.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Occurs during stress: This describes stable angina, which is precipitated by predictable stress or exertion.

B. Occurs without any EKG changes: Unstable angina often presents with reversible ischemic EKG changes, such as ST depression or T wave inversion.

C. Occurs with reversible EKG changes: While this is true for unstable angina, it is not the primary differentiator compared to other types of angina.

D. Occurs at rest: Correct. Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion, differentiating it from stable angina.

A. Thrombotic stroke B. Embolic stroke C. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Thrombotic stroke. A thrombotic stroke develops more gradually and is not typically associated with such sudden and severe symptoms.

B. Embolic stroke. An embolic stroke is often associated with a known embolic source, such as a clot from the heart, and can present more suddenly, but without all the symptoms seen here.

C. Hemorrhagic stroke: Hemorrhagic strokes often present with a sudden, severe headache, vomiting, seizure activity, and high blood pressure. A fever may also develop due to increased intracranial pressure.

D. Transient ischemic attack (TIA). TIAs are brief and resolve within minutes to hours and do not typically cause seizures.

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The health care provider prescribes IV mannitol for a client with an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 22. How will the nurse determine that the medication had the intended effect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assessing a client with unstable angina. Which finding would the nurse expect the client to report that differentiates this from other types of anginas?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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