The healthcare provider orders Benadryl 40 mg IM now. The available concentration is 25 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?
0.6 mL
1.6 mL
2 mL
1 mL
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: For 40 mg at 25 mg/mL: 40 ÷ 25 = 1.6 mL. Choice A (0.6 mL) delivers 15 mg (0.6 × 25), underdosing Benadryl, which could fail to relieve allergic symptoms or sedation needs, making this choice incorrect for the prescribed dose.
Choice B reason: Calculating 40 mg ÷ 25 mg/mL = 1.6 mL accurately delivers the ordered 40 mg of Benadryl (diphenhydramine) for allergy or sedation. This ensures therapeutic efficacy without overdose, aligning with safe administration for intramuscular delivery, making this the correct choice.
Choice C reason: For 40 mg, the volume is 40 ÷ 25 = 1.6 mL. Choice C (2 mL) delivers 50 mg (2 × 25), overdosing Benadryl, risking excessive sedation or anticholinergic effects like dry mouth or confusion, making this choice incorrect and potentially unsafe.
Choice D reason: The correct volume is 1.6 mL (40 ÷ 25). Choice D (1 mL) delivers 25 mg (1 × 25), underdosing Benadryl, which may not achieve therapeutic effects for allergies or sedation, making this choice inadequate for the prescribed dose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering captopril risks angioedema, as the patient’s history of tongue and lip swelling with enalapril (another ACE inhibitor) suggests a class effect due to bradykinin accumulation. This is potentially life-threatening, requiring avoidance, not monitoring, making this choice unsafe and incorrect.
Choice B reason: Fosinopril, another ACE inhibitor, carries the same angioedema risk as captopril and enalapril due to similar bradykinin effects. Switching within the same drug class doesn’t address the patient’s history of adverse reactions, making this choice inappropriate and potentially dangerous.
Choice C reason: Holding captopril and notifying the provider is correct, as the patient’s history of angioedema with enalapril indicates a high risk with captopril, another ACE inhibitor. Alternative classes (e.g., ARBs) should be considered to avoid life-threatening reactions, making this the safest and correct action.
Choice D reason: Angioedema (tongue and lip swelling) is a serious, potentially fatal side effect of ACE inhibitors, not benign. Reassuring the patient minimizes the risk, which could delay intervention. The history warrants avoiding captopril and consulting the provider, making this choice incorrect and unsafe.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Adrenergic neuron blockers, like guanethidine, reduce blood pressure by inhibiting norepinephrine release. They are not first-line for stage 1 hypertension (140-159/90-99 mm Hg). Their side effects, like orthostatic hypotension, make them less suitable. Lifestyle changes are preferred initially for this patient’s mild elevation and normal diagnostic tests, making this choice inappropriate.
Choice B reason: Beta blockers, like atenolol, reduce heart rate and cardiac output, lowering blood pressure. They are not first-line for stage 1 hypertension without compelling indications (e.g., heart failure). Guidelines recommend lifestyle modifications first for this patient’s blood pressure range, as they effectively reduce risk without medication side effects, making this choice less suitable.
Choice C reason: For stage 1 hypertension (140-159/90-99 mm Hg) with normal diagnostic tests, guidelines recommend lifestyle changes, such as diet, exercise, and weight loss, as first-line treatment. These reduce blood pressure by improving vascular health and reducing cardiac strain, offering a low-risk approach to manage mild hypertension effectively, making this the correct choice.
Choice D reason: ACE inhibitors, like lisinopril, block angiotensin II formation, reducing blood pressure. They are effective but not first-line for stage 1 hypertension without comorbidities. Lifestyle changes are prioritized to avoid medication side effects like cough or hyperkalemia, making this choice less appropriate for initial management in this patient.
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