The healthcare provider orders Benadryl 40 mg IM now. The available concentration is 25 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?
0.6 mL
1.6 mL
2 mL
1 mL
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: For 40 mg at 25 mg/mL: 40 ÷ 25 = 1.6 mL. Choice A (0.6 mL) delivers 15 mg (0.6 × 25), underdosing Benadryl, which could fail to relieve allergic symptoms or sedation needs, making this choice incorrect for the prescribed dose.
Choice B reason: Calculating 40 mg ÷ 25 mg/mL = 1.6 mL accurately delivers the ordered 40 mg of Benadryl (diphenhydramine) for allergy or sedation. This ensures therapeutic efficacy without overdose, aligning with safe administration for intramuscular delivery, making this the correct choice.
Choice C reason: For 40 mg, the volume is 40 ÷ 25 = 1.6 mL. Choice C (2 mL) delivers 50 mg (2 × 25), overdosing Benadryl, risking excessive sedation or anticholinergic effects like dry mouth or confusion, making this choice incorrect and potentially unsafe.
Choice D reason: The correct volume is 1.6 mL (40 ÷ 25). Choice D (1 mL) delivers 25 mg (1 × 25), underdosing Benadryl, which may not achieve therapeutic effects for allergies or sedation, making this choice inadequate for the prescribed dose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hydrochlorothiazide can treat diabetes insipidus by reducing urine output via sodium reabsorption, but this is a secondary use. Its primary role is in hypertension management, as it lowers blood pressure by decreasing blood volume, making this choice less accurate.
Choice B reason: Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, is primarily used for hypertension by promoting sodium and water excretion, reducing blood volume and vascular resistance. It’s a first-line treatment per guidelines, effectively lowering blood pressure, making this the correct choice for its primary indication.
Choice C reason: Hydrochlorothiazide treats edema in heart failure or renal disease by increasing diuresis, but this is a secondary indication. Its primary use is hypertension, where it reduces blood pressure more consistently across patients, making this choice less accurate than hypertension.
Choice D reason: Hydrochlorothiazide doesn’t protect against postmenopausal osteoporosis. While thiazides reduce urinary calcium loss, they’re not indicated for osteoporosis prevention, unlike bisphosphonates. Their primary role is hypertension management, making this choice incorrect for the drug’s main therapeutic use.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: NSAIDs, like ibuprofen, exacerbate peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) by inhibiting COX-1, reducing protective gastric mucus and increasing acid-related damage. They are contraindicated in these conditions, making this choice incorrect for treatment.
Choice B reason: Antacids neutralize gastric acid, providing rapid symptom relief in PUD and GERD by reducing acid irritation on the esophagus and stomach lining. They are a standard, non-prescription option for mild symptoms, making this a correct choice for managing these conditions.
Choice C reason: Laxatives treat constipation by promoting bowel movements but have no role in PUD or GERD, which involve acid-related damage to the stomach or esophagus. They don’t affect gastric acid or mucosal protection, making this choice incorrect for treatment.
Choice D reason: H2 antagonists, like ranitidine, reduce gastric acid secretion by blocking histamine receptors on parietal cells, promoting ulcer healing and relieving GERD symptoms. They are a mainstay treatment for both conditions, making this a correct choice for effective management.
Choice E reason: Proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, strongly inhibit gastric acid production by blocking the proton pump in parietal cells, allowing ulcer healing and reducing GERD symptoms. They are first-line therapy for PUD and GERD, making this a correct choice.
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