The healthcare provider orders Benadryl 40 mg IM now. The available concentration is 25 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?

0.6 mL

1.6 mL

2 mL

1 mL

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: For 40 mg at 25 mg/mL: 40 ÷ 25 = 1.6 mL. Choice A (0.6 mL) delivers 15 mg (0.6 × 25), underdosing Benadryl, which could fail to relieve allergic symptoms or sedation needs, making this choice incorrect for the prescribed dose.

Choice B reason: Calculating 40 mg ÷ 25 mg/mL = 1.6 mL accurately delivers the ordered 40 mg of Benadryl (diphenhydramine) for allergy or sedation. This ensures therapeutic efficacy without overdose, aligning with safe administration for intramuscular delivery, making this the correct choice.

Choice C reason: For 40 mg, the volume is 40 ÷ 25 = 1.6 mL. Choice C (2 mL) delivers 50 mg (2 × 25), overdosing Benadryl, risking excessive sedation or anticholinergic effects like dry mouth or confusion, making this choice incorrect and potentially unsafe.

Choice D reason: The correct volume is 1.6 mL (40 ÷ 25). Choice D (1 mL) delivers 25 mg (1 × 25), underdosing Benadryl, which may not achieve therapeutic effects for allergies or sedation, making this choice inadequate for the prescribed dose.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pulse oximetry of 95% is near normal and not a major concern for beta agonist administration. Tachycardia is more critical due to cardiac stimulation, so this is incorrect.

Choice B reason: A respiratory rate of 22 is slightly elevated but acceptable in respiratory conditions. Beta agonists target airways, but tachycardia is a greater risk, making this incorrect.

Choice C reason: Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg is low, but beta agonists primarily affect heart rate. A pre-existing tachycardia is more concerning contraindication, so this is incorrect.

Choice D reason: A heart rate of 120 beats/min is concerning, as beta agonists increase heart rate, risking arrhythmias. This requires evaluation before administration, making it the correct concern.

A. Myocardial contractility B. Cardiac afterload C. Venous return D. Cardiac preload

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Beta 1-adrenergic drugs, like dobutamine, stimulate beta-1 receptors in the heart, increasing cyclic AMP and calcium influx, enhancing myocardial contractility. This increases stroke volume by strengthening heart contractions, directly improving cardiac output, making this the correct choice for the drug’s mechanism of action.

Choice B reason: Cardiac afterload is the resistance the heart pumps against. Beta 1-adrenergic drugs don’t directly reduce afterload; they increase contractility. Increasing afterload would decrease stroke volume, opposing the drug’s purpose, making this choice incorrect for the drug’s effect on stroke volume.

Choice C reason: Venous return affects preload, not directly influenced by beta 1-adrenergic drugs. These drugs enhance contractility, increasing stroke volume independently of venous return. While preload impacts output, it’s not the primary mechanism of beta-1 stimulation, making this choice incorrect.

Choice D reason: Cardiac preload is the initial stretch of the heart, influenced by venous return. Beta 1-adrenergic drugs increase contractility, not preload, to boost stroke volume. Preload changes are secondary and not the primary action of these drugs, making this choice incorrect.

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The healthcare provider orders Benadryl 40 mg IM now. The available concentration is 25 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is to receive a beta agonist. Before administration of this medication, which assessment finding would most concern the nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient is taking a beta 1-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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