The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?

Labrynthitis

Perforated tympanic membrane

Meniere disease

Otitis externa

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Labrynthitis is an inner ear disorder that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it does not typically involve otorrhea (ear discharge) or the sudden resolution of ear pain.
B. A perforated tympanic membrane is characterized by a sudden relief of ear pain when the eardrum ruptures, often accompanied by otorrhea (discharge from the ear). This condition is typically the result of an infection that increases pressure in the middle ear until the eardrum bursts.
C. Meniere disease involves episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss, but does not usually present with ear pain followed by discharge.
D. Otitis externa, or swimmer’s ear, involves inflammation of the ear canal with symptoms like pain, itching, and discharge, but does not cause the sudden resolution of pain following the onset of otorrhea.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. The unconscious adult client with a sucking chest wound and low SpO2 (85%) is in immediate need of intervention. A sucking chest wound is a life-threatening injury that can lead to respiratory distress and compromised oxygenation. This client requires immediate attention to address the chest wound and improve oxygenation.
A. The unconscious client with no respirations and an ineffective airway attempt is likely beyond rescue, making them lower priority compared to those with potentially reversible conditions.
B. The conscious client with a broken tibia and elevated vital signs is stable enough to be seen after more critical cases are addressed.
D. The conscious client with shortness of breath and a high respiratory rate is concerning but not as immediately life-threatening as a client with a sucking chest wound.

A. Initiate droplet precautions. B. Prepare to administer antiviral therapy. C. Assess for hemorrhage. D. Assess the respiratory system.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Droplet precautions are not appropriate for anthrax exposure. Precautions would be based on the specific form of anthrax (cutaneous, inhalation, or gastrointestinal).
B. Anthrax is treated with antibiotics, not antiviral therapy. Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline is typically used for prophylaxis and treatment.
C. While assessing for hemorrhage might be relevant in cases of severe anthrax, it is more critical initially to focus on respiratory assessment, particularly for inhalation anthrax.
D. Assessing the respiratory system is crucial for clients exposed to anthrax, particularly inhalation anthrax, as it can cause severe respiratory symptoms and complications. Prompt assessment is essential for early detection and treatment of respiratory distress.

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The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

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