The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?

Labrynthitis

Perforated tympanic membrane

Meniere disease

Otitis externa

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Labrynthitis is an inner ear disorder that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it does not typically involve otorrhea (ear discharge) or the sudden resolution of ear pain.
B. A perforated tympanic membrane is characterized by a sudden relief of ear pain when the eardrum ruptures, often accompanied by otorrhea (discharge from the ear). This condition is typically the result of an infection that increases pressure in the middle ear until the eardrum bursts.
C. Meniere disease involves episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss, but does not usually present with ear pain followed by discharge.
D. Otitis externa, or swimmer’s ear, involves inflammation of the ear canal with symptoms like pain, itching, and discharge, but does not cause the sudden resolution of pain following the onset of otorrhea.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Darkening the room can help reduce light sensitivity, but it does not address the underlying cause of the headache.
B. Increasing fluid intake is effective in managing a headache after a lumbar puncture because it helps replenish cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and reduces the risk of post-lumbar puncture headache, which often results from CSF leakage.
C. Naproxen sodium can provide relief for headache pain, but increasing fluid intake addresses the root cause of the headache more directly.
D. Elevating the head of the bed is generally recommended for certain conditions, but it is not the most effective strategy for addressing a post-lumbar puncture headache, which is better managed by increasing fluid intake.

A. Hypovolemic shock B. Obstructive shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Septic shock

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by low blood pressure, pale skin, and abdominal pain due to significant fluid loss or hemorrhage. The client's symptoms, including hypotension and abdominal pain, suggest a reduction in blood volume potentially caused by gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which is consistent with chronic aspirin use.
B. Obstructive shock is due to a physical obstruction of blood flow, such as a pulmonary embolism or cardiac tamponade, which does not directly correlate with the client's presentation of symptoms.
C. Cardiogenic shock results from severe heart failure and is typically accompanied by signs of heart dysfunction, not just low blood pressure and abdominal pain.
D. Septic shock is associated with infection and systemic inflammation, often presenting with fever and other signs of infection, which the client is not exhibiting.

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The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who reports a throbbing headache after a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions is most likely to facilitate resolution of the headache?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with chronic pain is using aspirin regularly to control her pain symptoms. She presents to the hospital with abdominal pain, pale skin, afebrile, and a blood pressure (BP) of 83/45 mm Hg. Which type of shock is the client most likely experiencing?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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