The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?
Labrynthitis
Perforated tympanic membrane
Meniere disease
Otitis externa
The Correct Answer is B
A. Labrynthitis is an inner ear disorder that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it does not typically involve otorrhea (ear discharge) or the sudden resolution of ear pain.
B. A perforated tympanic membrane is characterized by a sudden relief of ear pain when the eardrum ruptures, often accompanied by otorrhea (discharge from the ear). This condition is typically the result of an infection that increases pressure in the middle ear until the eardrum bursts.
C. Meniere disease involves episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss, but does not usually present with ear pain followed by discharge.
D. Otitis externa, or swimmer’s ear, involves inflammation of the ear canal with symptoms like pain, itching, and discharge, but does not cause the sudden resolution of pain following the onset of otorrhea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Assessing for sources of bleeding is important in clients with neutropenia, but the highest priority is preventing infection, as the client’s absolute neutrophil count is zero, indicating an extremely high risk for infection.
B. Limiting contact with infected visitors and placing the client in positive pressure isolation is crucial for preventing infections. With a neutrophil count of zero, the client is highly immunocompromised and at a significant risk of infection, making this the highest priority action.
C. Administering antiemetics and assessing nutrition and hydration are important for managing symptoms, but they do not address the immediate risk of infection associated with severe neutropenia.
D. Monitoring energy levels and implementing energy-conserving techniques are important for overall care but do not address the urgent need to protect the client from infections due to their neutropenic status.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Droplet precautions are not appropriate for anthrax exposure. Precautions would be based on the specific form of anthrax (cutaneous, inhalation, or gastrointestinal).
B. Anthrax is treated with antibiotics, not antiviral therapy. Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline is typically used for prophylaxis and treatment.
C. While assessing for hemorrhage might be relevant in cases of severe anthrax, it is more critical initially to focus on respiratory assessment, particularly for inhalation anthrax.
D. Assessing the respiratory system is crucial for clients exposed to anthrax, particularly inhalation anthrax, as it can cause severe respiratory symptoms and complications. Prompt assessment is essential for early detection and treatment of respiratory distress.
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