The nurse is caring for a patient who has jaundice, dark urine, malaise, light-colored stools, nausea, and vomiting. What is this patient most likely experiencing?
An allergic reaction
An idiosyncratic drug effect on the bone marrow
Iatrogenic disease of the skin
Drug toxicity of the liver
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Allergic reactions typically present with symptoms like rash, itching, or anaphylaxis, not jaundice, dark urine, or light stools. These symptoms indicate hepatobiliary dysfunction, not an immune-mediated response. Allergic reactions don’t typically affect liver function or bile excretion, making this choice inconsistent with the patient’s clinical presentation.
Choice B reason: Idiosyncratic drug effects on bone marrow cause hematologic issues like anemia or leukopenia, not jaundice or light stools. These symptoms suggest liver dysfunction, as bile pigment changes cause dark urine and pale stools. Bone marrow effects don’t explain the hepatobiliary symptoms, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C reason: Iatrogenic skin disease might involve rashes or lesions, but jaundice, dark urine, and light stools point to liver or bile duct issues. These symptoms result from impaired bilirubin metabolism, not cutaneous pathology. This choice doesn’t align with the systemic hepatobiliary symptoms described, making it incorrect.
Choice D reason: Drug-induced liver toxicity, such as from acetaminophen or statins, impairs bilirubin metabolism, causing jaundice, dark urine (bilirubinuria), and light stools (reduced bile). Malaise, nausea, and vomiting reflect systemic effects of liver dysfunction. This matches the patient’s symptoms, making it the most likely diagnosis and correct choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Jaundice indicates liver dysfunction, but ibuprofen rarely causes hepatotoxicity at standard doses. It’s more associated with gastrointestinal issues due to COX-1 inhibition, reducing protective prostaglandins in the stomach lining. While possible with overdose, jaundice is less common than gastrointestinal bleeding, making this choice less likely.
Choice B reason: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, inhibits COX-1, reducing gastric mucosal protection, which can lead to ulcers or gastrointestinal bleeding. Bloody emesis (hematemesis) indicates severe gastrointestinal damage, a well-documented adverse effect requiring immediate intervention, making this the correct choice for a severe ibuprofen-related complication.
Choice C reason: Itching may indicate a mild allergic reaction or skin irritation, not a severe adverse effect of ibuprofen. While possible, it’s less critical than gastrointestinal bleeding, which poses life-threatening risks due to ibuprofen’s impact on gastric mucosa, making this choice less severe and incorrect.
Choice D reason: Dysmenorrhea (painful periods) is a condition ibuprofen treats, not an adverse effect. By inhibiting prostaglandins, ibuprofen reduces uterine contractions and pain. It doesn’t cause dysmenorrhea, making this choice irrelevant as an indicator of a severe adverse effect of ibuprofen therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hydrochlorothiazide can treat diabetes insipidus by reducing urine output via sodium reabsorption, but this is a secondary use. Its primary role is in hypertension management, as it lowers blood pressure by decreasing blood volume, making this choice less accurate.
Choice B reason: Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, is primarily used for hypertension by promoting sodium and water excretion, reducing blood volume and vascular resistance. It’s a first-line treatment per guidelines, effectively lowering blood pressure, making this the correct choice for its primary indication.
Choice C reason: Hydrochlorothiazide treats edema in heart failure or renal disease by increasing diuresis, but this is a secondary indication. Its primary use is hypertension, where it reduces blood pressure more consistently across patients, making this choice less accurate than hypertension.
Choice D reason: Hydrochlorothiazide doesn’t protect against postmenopausal osteoporosis. While thiazides reduce urinary calcium loss, they’re not indicated for osteoporosis prevention, unlike bisphosphonates. Their primary role is hypertension management, making this choice incorrect for the drug’s main therapeutic use.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
