The nurse is reviewing a pregnant client's prescribed medications that are currently due for administration at 0900. The nurse noticed that the physician ordered misoprostol to prevent stomach ulcers. What is the next action that the nurse should take?
Notify the physician to change the route of administration.
Do not give the medication and notify the provider for further clarification.
Administer the medication and then monitor for adverse reactions.
Verify the client's identity and administer the medication as prescribed.
The Correct Answer is B
A. This is not the correct action because the issue with misoprostol in pregnancy is not related to the route of administration, but rather its potential to cause uterine contractions and harm to the pregnancy. The nurse should not administer the medication at all, regardless of the route, and should notify the physician for further clarification.
B. Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy because it can cause uterine contractions, which may result in a miscarriage or preterm labor. The nurse should not administer this medication and must inform the healthcare provider to reconsider the prescription or explore alternative options to prevent stomach ulcers in pregnant clients.
C. Administering misoprostol to a pregnant client is dangerous, as it can stimulate uterine contractions and threaten the pregnancy. Monitoring for adverse reactions would not be an appropriate course of action, as the medication should not be given to begin with.
D. Even though verifying the patient's identity is always an important step, the main concern here is that misoprostol is contraindicated during pregnancy. The nurse should not administer this medication and must first clarify with the healthcare provider if it is suitable for the pregnant patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Respiratory depression is a hallmark sign of opioid toxicity. A rate of 7 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention with naloxone.
B. Anxiety is not typically associated with opioid toxicity, but rather may be a sign of withdrawal or other conditions.
C. Fever is not a sign of opioid toxicity. It may be a sign of infection or other medical issues.
D. Hypertension is not typical of opioid toxicity; opioids usually cause hypotension, not hypertension.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ondansetron (Zofran) can cause a prolonged QT interval, which may lead to arrhythmias. This is a known side effect and should be monitored.
B. Spasms of the neck and face are more likely to occur with medications that have extrapyramidal side effects, such as certain antipsychotics, not ondansetron.
C. Nausea and D. Vomiting are the symptoms ondansetron is intended to treat, so these are not complications.
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