The nurse is reviewing the home medication list with the patient. The nurse recognizes that hydrochlorothiazide is used primarily for which condition?
Diabetes insipidus
Hypertension
Edema
Protection against postmenopausal osteoporosis
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hydrochlorothiazide can treat diabetes insipidus by reducing urine output via sodium reabsorption, but this is a secondary use. Its primary role is in hypertension management, as it lowers blood pressure by decreasing blood volume, making this choice less accurate.
Choice B reason: Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, is primarily used for hypertension by promoting sodium and water excretion, reducing blood volume and vascular resistance. It’s a first-line treatment per guidelines, effectively lowering blood pressure, making this the correct choice for its primary indication.
Choice C reason: Hydrochlorothiazide treats edema in heart failure or renal disease by increasing diuresis, but this is a secondary indication. Its primary use is hypertension, where it reduces blood pressure more consistently across patients, making this choice less accurate than hypertension.
Choice D reason: Hydrochlorothiazide doesn’t protect against postmenopausal osteoporosis. While thiazides reduce urinary calcium loss, they’re not indicated for osteoporosis prevention, unlike bisphosphonates. Their primary role is hypertension management, making this choice incorrect for the drug’s main therapeutic use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Theophylline is rarely used due to toxicity risks and less efficacy compared to beta-agonists. Increasing fluticasone dose doesn’t address acute exacerbations, as inhaled corticosteroids act slowly. Oxygen is appropriate, but this regimen lacks rapid-acting bronchodilators, making it inadequate for acute asthma management.
Choice B reason: Four puffs of albuterol via inhaler may be insufficient for severe asthma (90% saturation, wheezes). Theophylline is outdated, and nebulized treatments are more effective in emergencies. Oxygen is needed, but this combination lacks systemic steroids for inflammation, making it less optimal.
Choice C reason: Intravenous glucocorticoids reduce airway inflammation rapidly, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium provide synergistic bronchodilation, and oxygen corrects hypoxia (90% saturation). This aligns with guidelines for acute asthma exacerbations, addressing inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and oxygenation, making it the correct and comprehensive treatment choice.
Choice D reason: Intramuscular glucocorticoids are slower than intravenous for acute asthma. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta-agonist, is inappropriate for acute exacerbations, as it lacks rapid onset. Oxygen is needed, but this regimen doesn’t address immediate bronchoconstriction effectively, making it incorrect for emergency management.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: For 40 mg at 25 mg/mL: 40 ÷ 25 = 1.6 mL. Choice A (0.6 mL) delivers 15 mg (0.6 × 25), underdosing Benadryl, which could fail to relieve allergic symptoms or sedation needs, making this choice incorrect for the prescribed dose.
Choice B reason: Calculating 40 mg ÷ 25 mg/mL = 1.6 mL accurately delivers the ordered 40 mg of Benadryl (diphenhydramine) for allergy or sedation. This ensures therapeutic efficacy without overdose, aligning with safe administration for intramuscular delivery, making this the correct choice.
Choice C reason: For 40 mg, the volume is 40 ÷ 25 = 1.6 mL. Choice C (2 mL) delivers 50 mg (2 × 25), overdosing Benadryl, risking excessive sedation or anticholinergic effects like dry mouth or confusion, making this choice incorrect and potentially unsafe.
Choice D reason: The correct volume is 1.6 mL (40 ÷ 25). Choice D (1 mL) delivers 25 mg (1 × 25), underdosing Benadryl, which may not achieve therapeutic effects for allergies or sedation, making this choice inadequate for the prescribed dose.
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