The nurse is reviewing the home medication list with the patient. The nurse recognizes that hydrochlorothiazide is used primarily for which condition?
Diabetes insipidus
Hypertension
Edema
Protection against postmenopausal osteoporosis
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hydrochlorothiazide can treat diabetes insipidus by reducing urine output via sodium reabsorption, but this is a secondary use. Its primary role is in hypertension management, as it lowers blood pressure by decreasing blood volume, making this choice less accurate.
Choice B reason: Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, is primarily used for hypertension by promoting sodium and water excretion, reducing blood volume and vascular resistance. It’s a first-line treatment per guidelines, effectively lowering blood pressure, making this the correct choice for its primary indication.
Choice C reason: Hydrochlorothiazide treats edema in heart failure or renal disease by increasing diuresis, but this is a secondary indication. Its primary use is hypertension, where it reduces blood pressure more consistently across patients, making this choice less accurate than hypertension.
Choice D reason: Hydrochlorothiazide doesn’t protect against postmenopausal osteoporosis. While thiazides reduce urinary calcium loss, they’re not indicated for osteoporosis prevention, unlike bisphosphonates. Their primary role is hypertension management, making this choice incorrect for the drug’s main therapeutic use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Low drug interactions are desirable but unrelated to ease of administration. Adherence is directly tied to administration simplicity, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Low production cost is a manufacturing benefit, not administration ease. Patient adherence is the outcome of easy administration, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Storage stability aids logistics, not administration. Easy administration improves compliance, like taking oral pills, so this is incorrect for the outcome.
Choice D reason: Easy administration, like simple dosing or oral routes, enhances patient adherence by reducing barriers. This is the desired outcome, making it correct.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increasing aspirin dosage without medical guidance risks toxicity, including gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration, as aspirin inhibits COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin production. Prostaglandins mediate pain and inflammation, but excessive inhibition can damage the stomach lining. This approach is unsafe and not recommended for managing menstrual cramps effectively, as it may exacerbate adverse effects without ensuring better pain relief.
Choice B reason: First-generation NSAIDs, like ibuprofen, are more effective for menstrual cramps due to their stronger inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which reduce prostaglandin synthesis responsible for uterine contractions and pain. Unlike aspirin, ibuprofen offers better pain relief with a more favorable dosing profile, making it a suitable alternative for dysmenorrhea management in most patients.
Choice C reason: Acetaminophen lacks significant anti-inflammatory effects, as it primarily inhibits COX enzymes in the central nervous system, not peripherally. It reduces pain and fever but does not effectively target prostaglandin-mediated inflammation in menstrual cramps. Therefore, it is less effective than NSAIDs like ibuprofen for dysmenorrhea, making it an inappropriate substitute in this context.
Choice D reason: Avoiding COX inhibitors due to Reye’s syndrome risk is unwarranted here, as Reye’s syndrome is primarily associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Menstrual cramps are unrelated to this condition, and COX inhibitors like NSAIDs are standard treatment. This choice is overly restrictive and not clinically justified for managing dysmenorrhea.
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