A patient has three separate blood pressure (BP) readings of 120/100, 138/92 mm Hg, and 126/96 mm Hg. Which category describes this pattern of BP?
Normal
Isolated systolic hypertension
Hypertension
Prehypertension
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Normal BP is below 120/80 mm Hg. These readings, with diastolic consistently above 90 mm Hg, indicate hypertension, not normal BP, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Isolated systolic hypertension involves systolic BP ≥130 mm Hg with diastolic <80 mm Hg. High diastolic readings rule this out, so this is incorrect for the pattern.
Choice C reason: BP readings above 130/80 mm Hg, especially with diastolic ≥90 mm Hg, classify as hypertension (Stage 2). This matches the patient’s pattern, making it the correct category.
Choice D reason: Prehypertension is 120–129/<80 mm Hg. These readings exceed this with high diastolic values, indicating hypertension, so this is incorrect for the BP pattern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Lipid-soluble drugs cross cell membranes quickly due to their affinity for lipid bilayers, leading to predictable, rapid absorption. Their onset is not unpredictable but typically faster than water-soluble drugs, especially via routes like intravenous or transdermal, making this choice incorrect for lipid-soluble drugs.
Choice B reason: Lipid-soluble drugs, like fentanyl, rapidly cross lipid-rich cell membranes, including the blood-brain barrier, leading to quick onset of action. This is due to their high partition coefficient, allowing fast diffusion into tissues, making rapid effect onset the correct expectation for the nurse.
Choice C reason: Lipid-soluble drugs have faster onset than water-soluble drugs due to easier membrane penetration. Slow effects are more typical of water-soluble or poorly absorbed drugs. Lipid solubility enhances rapid distribution and action, making this choice incorrect for the expected effect timeline.
Choice D reason: Osmosis refers to water movement across membranes, not drug absorption. Lipid-soluble drugs diffuse through lipid bilayers, not via osmosis, which is irrelevant to their pharmacokinetics. This choice is scientifically inaccurate for describing the onset of lipid-soluble drug effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, reduces intracranial pressure by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream. This is its primary use in head injuries, making it correct.
Choice B reason: Mannitol is not primarily for peripheral edema; it targets cerebral edema. Furosemide is used for peripheral fluid, so this is incorrect for mannitol’s purpose.
Choice C reason: Mannitol removes fluid, not restores it. extracellular fluid, aiming to reduce brain swelling. Restoring fluid is opposite its effect, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Mannitol increases renal perfusion by promoting diuresis, not reducing it. Its main goal is intracranial pressure reduction, so this is incorrect.
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