Tyleemah the nurse is caring for a child who is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
Methylprednisolone
Albuterol
Montelukast
Fluticasone
The Correct Answer is B
A. Methylprednisolone: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation but is not the first-line treatment for an acute asthma attack. It is used in the management of longer-term control and inflammation after the initial symptoms are managed.
B. Albuterol: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) that provides quick relief by dilating the airways. It is the first medication given during an acute asthma attack to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.
C. Montelukast: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term control and prevention of asthma symptoms but is not used in an acute asthma attack.
D. Fluticasone: Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term management of asthma to reduce inflammation, but it is not effective in treating an acute asthma attack.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A 12-year-old client who had an appendectomy and refuses to ambulate: Refusal to ambulate post-appendectomy may be concerning for complications like constipation or post-operative discomfort, but it is not an immediate emergency unless accompanied by other signs of complications like infection or bleeding.
B. An 18-month-old client who had a cleft palate repair and is crying in pain: Pain is expected following surgery, and while it should be addressed promptly, it does not constitute an immediate emergency unless there are signs of distress or complications.
C. An 8-year-old client who had a tonsillectomy and is swallowing frequently: Frequent swallowing after a tonsillectomy can indicate bleeding, which is a potential complication requiring immediate attention. It is important to assess for signs of bleeding, such as increased swallowing or a change in respiratory status.
D. A 15-year-old client who has an IV infusion and reports pain at the insertion site: Pain at the IV insertion site could indicate a complication like infiltration or phlebitis, but it is not an immediate emergency unless associated with other severe symptoms (e.g., swelling or systemic infection).
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Sickle Cell Disease: Sickle cell disease presents with episodes of pain, anemia, and other complications, but it does not typically cause sneezing, coughing, nasal congestion, or apneic spells.
B. Bronchiolitis: Bronchiolitis is a viral respiratory infection, most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), that affects infants and young children. Symptoms include sneezing, coughing, nasal congestion, fever, and apneic episodes, which match the description in the question.
C. Croup: Croup is characterized by a barky cough, hoarseness, and stridor, usually due to viral infections such as parainfluenza. It does not typically cause apneic spells in a 3-month-old.
D. Epiglottitis: Epiglottitis presents with severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, drooling, and stridor. It is a more acute, life-threatening condition that does not typically present with nasal congestion or apneic spells.
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