What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Atherosclerosis erodes the vessel wall
Atherosclerosis causes ischemia of the intima
It obstructs the vessel
It increases nitric oxide
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Atherosclerosis erodes the vessel wall by forming plaques that weaken arterial layers, promoting aneurysm formation. This degenerative process destabilizes the wall, making it the correct effect in aneurysm development.
Choice B reason: Ischemia of the intima is not a primary atherosclerosis effect; plaques cause wall damage, not just intimal ischemia. Vessel wall erosion is more accurate for aneurysm formation, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Atherosclerosis narrows vessels but doesn’t primarily obstruct them in aneurysm formation. Wall erosion and weakening lead to dilation, not blockage, so this is incorrect for aneurysm development.
Choice D reason: Atherosclerosis reduces nitric oxide, impairing vasodilation, but this isn’t directly linked to aneurysms. Vessel wall erosion by plaques is the key mechanism, so this is incorrect for the effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) causes isolated thrombocytopenia due to autoimmune platelet destruction, leading to bleeding like petechiae. However, it does not typically cause prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, or DVT, making it inconsistent with Lorretta’s multi-system coagulopathy.
Choice B reason: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) involves microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and organ damage but typically presents with neurological or renal symptoms, not prolonged PT/aPTT or DVT. Lorretta’s coagulopathy and DVT history better align with another condition, making TTP incorrect.
Choice C reason: Hemophilia, a genetic clotting factor deficiency, causes prolonged aPTT but not thrombocytopenia, elevated D-dimer, or DVT. It primarily affects males and causes joint or muscle bleeds, not diffuse bleeding like Lorretta’s, making this an incorrect diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) involves widespread clotting and bleeding, causing thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, and petechiae. Lorretta’s DVT history and anticoagulant use may trigger DIC, with leg swelling indicating thrombosis, making this the correct diagnosis.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increased permeability and leakage occur at an injury site due to histamine and cytokine release, causing endothelial gaps. This allows plasma and immune cells to enter tissues, promoting inflammation and edema, making this a correct vascular change.
Choice B reason: Blood vessels initially constrict to limit bleeding, then dilate to increase blood flow, delivering immune cells and nutrients. This biphasic response (constriction followed by dilation) is a hallmark of acute injury, making this a correct vascular change.
Choice C reason: Pallor occurs from initial vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow, followed by swelling from increased permeability and fluid leakage. These are typical injury responses, reflecting vascular and tissue changes, making this a correct observation.
Choice D reason: “None of the above” is incorrect, as increased permeability, biphasic vessel response, and pallor with swelling are well-documented vascular changes at injury sites. These align with the inflammatory process, making this an invalid choice.
Choice E reason: Tightening of capillary endothelial junctions does not occur during acute injury. Junctions loosen due to inflammatory mediators, increasing permeability, not tightening, which would limit leakage, making this an incorrect vascular change.
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