What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Atherosclerosis erodes the vessel wall
Atherosclerosis causes ischemia of the intima
It obstructs the vessel
It increases nitric oxide
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Atherosclerosis erodes the vessel wall by forming plaques that weaken arterial layers, promoting aneurysm formation. This degenerative process destabilizes the wall, making it the correct effect in aneurysm development.
Choice B reason: Ischemia of the intima is not a primary atherosclerosis effect; plaques cause wall damage, not just intimal ischemia. Vessel wall erosion is more accurate for aneurysm formation, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Atherosclerosis narrows vessels but doesn’t primarily obstruct them in aneurysm formation. Wall erosion and weakening lead to dilation, not blockage, so this is incorrect for aneurysm development.
Choice D reason: Atherosclerosis reduces nitric oxide, impairing vasodilation, but this isn’t directly linked to aneurysms. Vessel wall erosion by plaques is the key mechanism, so this is incorrect for the effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break where one side of the bone bends, common in children. A complete fracture fully breaks the bone into separate pieces, making this an incorrect comparison to a complete fracture.
Choice B reason: A bone damaged but in one piece describes an incomplete fracture, like a stress or greenstick fracture. A complete fracture involves a full break with separated fragments, making this an incorrect description of a complete fracture.
Choice C reason: A spiral fracture is a type of complete fracture caused by twisting forces, but not all complete fractures are spiral. Complete fractures broadly involve full bone separation, making this a partially correct but overly specific comparison.
Choice D reason: A complete fracture is when the bone is broken all the way through, separating into two or more fragments. This distinguishes it from incomplete fractures, aligning with the definition, making this the correct explanation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) causes isolated thrombocytopenia due to autoimmune platelet destruction, leading to bleeding like petechiae. However, it does not typically cause prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, or DVT, making it inconsistent with Lorretta’s multi-system coagulopathy.
Choice B reason: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) involves microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and organ damage but typically presents with neurological or renal symptoms, not prolonged PT/aPTT or DVT. Lorretta’s coagulopathy and DVT history better align with another condition, making TTP incorrect.
Choice C reason: Hemophilia, a genetic clotting factor deficiency, causes prolonged aPTT but not thrombocytopenia, elevated D-dimer, or DVT. It primarily affects males and causes joint or muscle bleeds, not diffuse bleeding like Lorretta’s, making this an incorrect diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) involves widespread clotting and bleeding, causing thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, and petechiae. Lorretta’s DVT history and anticoagulant use may trigger DIC, with leg swelling indicating thrombosis, making this the correct diagnosis.
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