What is a pathological angiogenesis?
Release of inflammatory mediators
Formation of new vessels in response to injury
Excessive or abnormal blood vessel growth
Inhibition of vessel formation
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Release of inflammatory mediators drives inflammation, not angiogenesis. Pathological angiogenesis is excessive or abnormal vessel growth, often in diseases like cancer, so this is incorrect for the term.
Choice B reason: New vessel formation in response to injury is physiological angiogenesis, not pathological. Pathological angiogenesis involves abnormal, excessive growth, so this is incorrect for the described process.
Choice C reason: Pathological angiogenesis is excessive or abnormal blood vessel growth, seen in conditions like tumors or retinopathy. This matches the definition, making it the correct choice for the term.
Choice D reason: Inhibition of vessel formation is anti-angiogenic, not pathological angiogenesis. Excessive vessel growth defines the pathological state, so this is incorrect for the term.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Smoking is a significant risk factor for ischemic stroke, contributing to vascular damage. However, hypertension has a stronger association, directly causing arterial stress and clot formation, so this is less critical than hypertension.
Choice B reason: Diabetes increases stroke risk by promoting atherosclerosis, but its impact is less immediate than hypertension, which directly elevates arterial pressure and stroke likelihood. Thus, diabetes is incorrect as the most significant factor.
Choice C reason: Hypertension is the most significant risk factor for ischemic stroke, as it damages arteries, promotes clot formation, and increases stroke incidence. Isky’s history highlights this as the primary contributor, making it correct.
Choice D reason: Age (65) is a stroke risk factor, but hypertension’s direct impact on vascular health outweighs age alone. Isky’s controllable risk factor, hypertension, is more significant, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break where one side of the bone bends, common in children. A complete fracture fully breaks the bone into separate pieces, making this an incorrect comparison to a complete fracture.
Choice B reason: A bone damaged but in one piece describes an incomplete fracture, like a stress or greenstick fracture. A complete fracture involves a full break with separated fragments, making this an incorrect description of a complete fracture.
Choice C reason: A spiral fracture is a type of complete fracture caused by twisting forces, but not all complete fractures are spiral. Complete fractures broadly involve full bone separation, making this a partially correct but overly specific comparison.
Choice D reason: A complete fracture is when the bone is broken all the way through, separating into two or more fragments. This distinguishes it from incomplete fractures, aligning with the definition, making this the correct explanation.
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