Which needle gauge should a nurse select when administering a medication subcutaneously?

20.

21.

25.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The needle gauge size for subcutaneous injections should be between 25 and 31, depending on the patient’s size and the viscosity of the medication.

A smaller gauge number means a larger diameter needle, which can cause more pain and tissue damage.

Choice A is wrong because 8 is too large for subcutaneous injections and can cause bleeding and bruising.

Choice B is wrong because 20 is also too large for subcutaneous injections and can cause similar complications as choice A.

Choice C is wrong because 21 is still too large for subcutaneous injections and can cause discomfort and injury to the patient.

The needle length for subcutaneous injections should be between ½ inch and ⅝ inch, depending on the amount of subcutaneous tissue present. The nurse should pinch the skin and insert the needle at a 45-degree angle to ensure proper delivery of the medication.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A 40-year-old client who has a blood pressure of 138/98 mm Hg should be referred for immediate treatment. This is because this client has grade 1 hypertension according to the International Society of Hypertension (ISH) guidelines, which define hypertension as a systolic blood pressure (SBP) of 140 mm Hg or higher and/or a diastolic blood pressure (DBP) of 90 mm Hg or higher in the office or clinic. This client also has a high risk of cardiovascular complications due to their age and elevated DBP.

Choice A is wrong because a 20-year-old client who has a blood pressure of 125/60 mm Hg does not have hypertension. This client has normal blood pressure according to the ISH guidelines, which define normal blood pressure as an SBP of less than 130 mm Hg and a DBP of less than 85 mm Hg in the office or clinic. This client also has a low risk of cardiovascular complications due to their age and low DBP.

Choice C is wrong because a 55-year-old client who has a blood pressure of 142/68 mm Hg does not need immediate treatment. This client has grade 1 hypertension according to the ISH guidelines, but their DBP is normal. The ISH guidelines recommend lifestyle interventions for three to six months before medication in patients with grade 1 hypertension and no comorbidities.

This client may have other risk factors that need to be assessed, such as obesity, diabetes, or smoking, but they do not require urgent referral.

Choice D is wrong because a 70-year-old client who has a blood pressure of 150/78 mm Hg does not need immediate treatment. This client has grade 1 hypertension according to the ISH guidelines, but their DBP is normal. The ISH guidelines recommend a target blood pressure of less than 140/90 mm Hg within three months for patients older than 65 years, and after three months reduce the target to less than 130/80 mm Hg.

This client may have other risk factors that need to be assessed, such as chronic kidney disease, heart failure, or atrial fibrillation, but they do not require urgent referral.

A. “The risk of getting schizophrenia is low, and most people with a close relative with the condition will not develop it themselves.”. B. “Schizophrenia is caused by genetic factors and your children will develop the disease ten times more often than the general public.”. C. “There is a 50% chance that your child will be born with schizophrenia, so keep them out of crowded places and high anxiety situations.”. D. “Females with schizophrenia are infertile and unable to carry a full-term pregnancy, but most of the people who are affected are male.”.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Schizophrenia is a disorder that has genetic risk factors, but is not caused by a single gene. The risk of developing schizophrenia is higher if you have a close relative with the disorder, but it is not certain. The risk varies depending on the degree of relatedness and the number of genes involved. The heritability of schizophrenia, which measures how much of the risk is due to genetic factors, is estimated to be between 60% to 80%.

Choice B is wrong because it exaggerates the risk of schizophrenia for children of affected parents. The risk is about 10%, not 10 times more than the general public.

Choice C is wrong because it gives a false and misleading statistic.

There is no 50% chance that a child will be born with schizophrenia, and there is no evidence that crowded places and high anxiety situations can cause the disorder.

Choice D is wrong because it is based on false and outdated stereotypes. Females with schizophrenia are not infertile and can carry a full-term pregnancy, but most of the people who are affected are male.

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Which needle gauge should a nurse select when administering a medication subcutaneously?

Nursing Test Bank

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