Which type of bone fracture is likely to take the longest to heal?
Undisplaced
Compound
Greenstick
Oblique
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Undisplaced fractures, where bone segments remain aligned, heal faster, typically in 6-8 weeks. Minimal disruption to blood supply and periosteum allows efficient callus formation and remodeling. These fractures require less intervention, as the stable bone structure supports osteoblast activity and collagen deposition, leading to quicker recovery.
Choice B reason: Compound (open) fractures, where bone pierces the skin, take the longest to heal, often 3-6 months or more. Open wounds increase infection risk, disrupting blood supply and delaying osteogenesis. Surgical intervention, prolonged immobilization, and potential complications like osteomyelitis further slow the healing process, requiring extensive tissue repair.
Choice C reason: Greenstick fractures, common in children, involve partial bone breaks due to flexible bones. They heal relatively quickly, in 4-8 weeks, as the intact periosteum supports rapid callus formation. The partial break preserves some blood supply, facilitating osteoblast activity and bone remodeling, making healing faster than compound fractures.
Choice D reason: Oblique fractures, with angled breaks, heal in 6-12 weeks, depending on stability. While more complex than undisplaced fractures, they have less soft tissue damage than compound fractures. Blood supply disruption is moderate, and surgical fixation may be needed, but healing is faster than in open fractures due to lower infection risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Excessive bile acid absorption, often due to ileal dysfunction, reduces bile acid availability in the gallbladder, promoting cholesterol supersaturation and gallstone formation. This contributes to cholelithiasis, particularly cholesterol gallstones, by altering bile composition, making this condition a significant risk factor, not the least likely.
Choice B reason: Elevated serum calcium (hypercalcemia) is not directly linked to cholelithiasis. While hypercalcemia can cause kidney stones, gallstone formation is driven by bile composition changes, like cholesterol or bile acid imbalances, not serum calcium levels. This makes it the least likely contributor to gallstone development.
Choice C reason: Elevated dietary cholesterol increases hepatic cholesterol secretion into bile, leading to supersaturation and cholesterol gallstone formation. This is a well-established risk factor for cholelithiasis, as excess cholesterol overwhelms bile acid and phospholipid solubilization, promoting crystal formation, making it a significant contributor, not the least likely.
Choice D reason: Inflammation of epithelial tissue, such as in chronic cholecystitis, promotes gallstone formation by altering gallbladder motility and bile stasis. Inflammatory changes disrupt bile acid metabolism and increase mucin production, facilitating stone nucleation. This condition is a known risk factor for cholelithiasis, not the least likely contributor.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Semaglutide, a GLP-1 receptor agonist, is not considered safe in pregnancy due to limited data and potential fetal risks. Animal studies suggest possible teratogenicity, and it is typically avoided in pregnant patients with type 2 diabetes, making this statement inaccurate and irrelevant to its mechanism.
Choice B reason: Semaglutide mimics GLP-1, enhancing glucose-dependent insulin secretion, suppressing glucagon release, slowing gastric emptying, and promoting satiety. These actions lower blood glucose and support weight loss in type 2 diabetes. This statement is accurate, as GLP-1-mediated insulin production is central to its mechanism of action.
Choice C reason: Semaglutide is primarily used for type 2 diabetes, not type 1, as it relies on functional beta cells to enhance insulin secretion. Type 1 diabetes involves absolute insulin deficiency, rendering GLP-1 agonists ineffective. This statement is inaccurate, as semaglutide is not indicated for type 1 diabetes.
Choice D reason: Semaglutide requires regular blood sugar monitoring, as hypoglycemia can occur, especially with concomitant insulin or sulfonylureas. Its glucose-lowering effects necessitate careful management to prevent adverse events. This statement is inaccurate, as monitoring remains critical to ensure safe and effective diabetes control.
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