While assessing an older adult client, the nurse notes that the client has old and new ecchymotic areas on the extremities and buttocks upon admission. The client states to the nurse in confidence that the family members frequently hit him. Which therapeutic statement should the nurse communicate in response?

Let's get these treated

I'll report this type of abuse

Call the emergency department

I'll keep this in confidence

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: While treating the injuries is important, addressing the root cause of abuse is crucial for the client's safety. Simply treating the injuries without addressing the abuse may allow the cycle of harm to continue.

Choice B reason: Reporting the abuse is a legal and ethical responsibility for healthcare providers. Ensuring the client's safety and providing necessary interventions to stop the abuse is paramount.

Choice C reason: Calling the emergency department is not the correct response. The nurse should follow the proper protocol for reporting abuse, which involves notifying social services or other relevant authorities.

Choice D reason: Keeping the information in confidence is not appropriate when dealing with abuse cases. The nurse must act to protect the client and report the abuse to prevent further harm.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pyridostigmine is a medication used to treat myasthenia gravis by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, but it is not used as an antidote for edrophonium overdose. Pyridostigmine helps improve muscle strength by increasing the amount of acetylcholine available at the neuromuscular junction.

Choice B reason: Flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose and has no effect on edrophonium. It works by competitively inhibiting the actions of benzodiazepines on the GABA receptor.

Choice C reason: Acetylcholine itself is not used as an antidote for edrophonium overdose. Administering acetylcholine would not counteract the effects of excessive acetylcholinesterase inhibition caused by edrophonium.

Choice D reason: Atropine is the correct antidote for edrophonium overdose. Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that can counteract the excessive accumulation of acetylcholine caused by edrophonium, thereby alleviating symptoms such as bradycardia and muscle weakness.

A. Increased urinary output B. Hyperactive bowel sounds C. Abdominal tenderness/pain D. Bradycardia

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Increased urinary output is not a manifestation of peritonitis. Peritonitis affects the peritoneal cavity, leading to abdominal symptoms rather than changes in urinary output.

Choice B reason: Hyperactive bowel sounds can occur in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not specific to peritonitis. Peritonitis typically presents with abdominal pain and tenderness.

Choice C reason: Abdominal tenderness/pain is a key manifestation of peritonitis. Inflammation of the peritoneum causes significant discomfort, and patients may also exhibit signs of infection such as fever and increased white blood cell count.

Choice D reason: Bradycardia is not commonly associated with peritonitis. Peritonitis primarily affects the abdominal cavity and may lead to systemic symptoms like fever and tachycardia, but not typically bradycardia.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client admitted to the hospital with suspected myasthenic crisis was prescribed edrophonium (Tensilon). The nurse misread the dosage and administered a higher dose than prescribed. The doctor has ordered an antidote to be given. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should monitor the client for which manifestations of peritonitis?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed asthma. Which instructions should the nurse include to reduce the likelihood of an asthma attack? (Select all that apply)

A nurse is caring for a client who is found unresponsive and pulseless in their room. An ECG confirms the client is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT). The nurse should anticipate the need for taking which of the following actions?

The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a bilateral adrenalectomy for treatment of an adrenal tumor. What information should the nurse give the client about the post-surgical needs?

A female client undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer is distressed about hair loss. The most effective intervention by the nurse would be to:

The nurse is caring for a client post-thyroidectomy that is showing clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find during the assessment?