You are an RN in a busy Emergency Department. A patient comes in with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you NOT expect the patient to report experiencing?
Polydipsia
Polyphagia
Polyuria
Anorexia
The Correct Answer is D
A. Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is a common symptom of diabetes, including Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. It occurs because high blood glucose levels lead to increased urine output (polyuria), which causes dehydration and prompts excessive thirst.
B. Polyphagia, or excessive hunger, is another common symptom of T2DM. In Type 2 Diabetes, despite having high blood glucose levels, the cells are unable to effectively use glucose due to insulin resistance, leading to persistent hunger.
C. Polyuria, or excessive urination, is common in T2DM. High blood glucose levels lead to glucose spilling into the urine, which increases urine volume and frequency.
D. Anorexia, or loss of appetite, is not a typical symptom of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. In fact, T2DM usually presents with increased appetite (polyphagia) rather than decreased appetite.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Vasopressin has a vasoconstrictive effect, which means it narrows blood vessels while nitroglycerin has a vasodilatory effect, meaning it widens blood vessels. Combining these two medications could potentially lead to a significant drop in blood pressure and increase the risk of angina or myocardial infarction.
B. While hyperglycemia and insulin use are relevant for managing diabetes, they are not directly related to the use of Vasopressin. Vasopressin's main concerns are related to fluid balance and blood pressure rather than glucose levels.
C. Vasopressin can actually help to increase blood pressure, which might be beneficial for a patient with hypotension.
D. The family history of ovarian cancer does not have a direct impact on the use of Vasopressin. Vasopressin’s use is more closely related to cardiovascular and fluid balance issues rather than cancer history.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While oral glucose is a good option for mild hypoglycemia, this patient is severely hypoglycemic and unable to swallow.
B. This is also appropriate for mild hypoglycemia, but the patient's condition warrants a more rapid- acting intervention.
C. D50 is a concentrated glucose solution that is administered intravenously for rapid correction of severe hypoglycemia. Given the patient's lethargic state and inability to follow commands, IV glucose is the most appropriate and immediate intervention.
D. While glucagon is an effective treatment for hypoglycemia, it is not the first-line treatment for a patient who is able to receive IV glucose. IV glucose is faster-acting and more reliable in this situation.
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