Video Library
Ati Fundamentals Quiz
Ati Fundamentals Quiz
Total Questions : 30
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreIn providing care to a client with chronic pain, which of the following characteristics or client responses should the nurse expect?
Explanation
A. While some clients with chronic pain may develop coping mechanisms, this does not mean that measures for relief are unnecessary. Pain management is still crucial for maintaining quality of life.
B. Opioid-based analgesics can be effective for some individuals with chronic pain, but their effectiveness can vary and they may not always be the best option due to potential side effects and the risk of dependence.
C. Chronic pain can be challenging to assess, but the perception and expression of pain are subjective and can vary greatly among individuals. Constant complaints of pain do not necessarily mean the pain intensity is difficult to assess; rather, it indicates the need for thorough pain evaluation.
D. Chronic pain often does not trigger the same physiological responses as acute pain. Therefore, vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, and pulse rate may remain normal even while the client is experiencing pain. This can make it more challenging to assess the presence and intensity of pain solely based on these parameters.
A paraplegic patient is admitted to the hospital for intensive management of an open, infected pressure ulcer on the left buttock at the prominence of the ischial tuberosity. The initial assessment of the patient's pressure ulcer indicates that it is 5 cm long by 2.5 cm wide and is 1.5 cm deep. The wound is a full thickness ulcer, has some slough present and extends through the dermis into the subcutaneous tissue. No exposed muscle, tendons, ligaments, cartilage, or bones present. The nurse classifies the pressure ulcer as
Explanation
A. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough.
B. Stage I pressure ulcers are characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
C. Stage III pressure ulcers involve full thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible, but bone, tendon, or muscle are not exposed. Slough may be present but does not obscure the depth of tissue loss.
D. Stage IV pressure ulcers involve full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has acute pancreatitis and has a prescription for fat-soluble vitamin supplements. The nurse should instruct the client to take a supplement for which of the following?
Explanation
A. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) is a water-soluble vitamin.
B. Vitamin B12 is a water-soluble vitamin.
C. Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin.
D. Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin, along with vitamins D, E, and K. Clients with pancreatitis may have difficulty absorbing fat-soluble vitamins due to impaired pancreatic function.
A nurse is preparing to administer three liquid medications to a client who has an NG feeding tube with continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Medications should be diluted as per pharmacy recommendations, not arbitrarily with 10 mL of tap water.
B. The head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30-45 degrees during and after feeding to prevent aspiration.
C. Medications should not be mixed together to avoid interactions unless recommended by the pharmacy.
D. Flushing the NG feeding tube with 30 mL of water immediately following medication administration ensures that the medication has cleared the tube and prevents clogging.
A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Explanation
A. The blood must be checked by two licensed professionals, not an assistant personal (AP).
B. Blood should be infused within 4 hours to reduce the risk of bacterial contamination.
C. The nurse should remain with the client for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion to monitor for any immediate adverse reactions.
D. Pre-medicating with an antiemetic is not a standard practice unless specifically indicated by the client's history or condition.
Which fluid or product to be infused requires a central venous access rather than a peripheral access?
Explanation
A. Fresh-frozen plasma can be administered via peripheral access.
B. Dextrose 10% in water can typically be administered via peripheral access.
C. 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) can be administered via peripheral access.
D. Parenteral nutrition formula, particularly if it is hyperosmolar, often requires central venous access due to the high concentration of glucose and nutrients, which can irritate peripheral veins and require a more stable infusion rate.
A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing complications due to immobility. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
A. Immobility can lead to pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on bony prominences.
B. Polyuria is not a common complication of immobility.
C. Diarrhea is not typically associated with immobility; constipation is more common.
D. Immobility can cause contractures of the extremities due to muscle shortening and tightening.
E. Crackles in the lungs can occur due to fluid accumulation and reduced lung expansion associated with immobility.
A nurse is instructing a young adult client about healthful sleep habits. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an Indication that the client needs further teaching?
Explanation
A. Watching television until falling asleep can interfere with the ability to fall asleep and stay asleep due to the stimulating effects of screen time and blue light.
B. Having a small snack and taking a bath before bed are good practices that can promote relaxation and help induce sleep.
C. Avoiding naps throughout the day can help improve nighttime sleep quality and maintain a consistent sleep schedule.
D. Going to bed and getting up at the same time each day helps regulate the body's internal clock and improve sleep quality.
A chronically ill, bedfast patient cared for in the home by family members has a stage II pressure ulcer over the coccyx. To prevent further tissue damage, the home care nurse instructs the family members that it is most important to
Explanation
A. While a high-calorie, high-protein diet is beneficial for wound healing, it is not the most critical factor in preventing further tissue damage.
B. Changing the patient's position every 2 hours is crucial to relieve pressure on the ulcer and prevent further tissue damage.
C. Changing the patient's linen daily is important for hygiene but does not directly prevent pressure ulcer progression.
D. Recording the size and appearance of the ulcer is important for monitoring, but preventing further damage through repositioning is more critical.
What is the preferred IM injection site for a 1-year-old?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The deltoid muscle is not recommended for IM injections in infants due to its small size.
B. The gluteus is not preferred due to the risk of hitting the sciatic nerve and because the muscle is not well-developed in infants.
C. The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to its size and low risk of complications.
D. "Upper thigh" is a vague term but typically refers to the vastus lateralis in the context of infant injections.
You just viewed 10 questions out of the 30 questions on the Ati Fundamentals Quiz Exam. Subscribe to our Premium Package to obtain access on all the questions and have unlimited access on all Exams. Subscribe Now
