Ati growth and development exam
Ati growth and development exam
Total Questions : 41
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is assisting with teaching a class on prenatal development. The nurse should instruct that advanced maternal age increases the risk for which of the following conditions?
Explanation
Choice A reason : Asthma is a chronic condition characterized by respiratory symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and coughing due to airway inflammation and constriction. While genetic and environmental factors contribute to the development of asthma, there is no direct correlation between advanced maternal age and an increased risk of asthma in offspring. Asthma's etiology is multifactorial and more closely related to family history, exposure to allergens, and respiratory infections during early childhood.
Choice B reason : Spina bifida is a neural tube defect that occurs when the spine and spinal cord don't form properly. It's associated with factors such as folic acid deficiency during early pregnancy, certain medications, diabetes, and obesity. Although advanced maternal age may slightly increase the risk of chromosomal abnormalities, it is not considered a significant risk factor for spina bifida. Adequate intake of folic acid before conception and during early pregnancy is the most effective prevention strategy.
Choice C reason : Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21). The risk of conceiving a child with Down syndrome increases with maternal age, particularly after age 35. This is due to the higher likelihood of nondisjunction events during cell division in older eggs, leading to an abnormal number of chromosomes. Advanced maternal age is a well-established risk factor for Down syndrome, and prenatal screening is recommended to assess the risk.
Choice D reason : Facial malformations, such as cleft lip or palate, are congenital anomalies that can affect the appearance and function of a child's face. These conditions are influenced by genetic and environmental factors, including certain medications, nutritional deficiencies, and exposure to harmful substances during pregnancy. While advanced maternal age may contribute to an increased risk of chromosomal abnormalities, it is not specifically linked to an increased risk of isolated facial malformations.
A nurse is assisting with evaluating teaching with a client who reports insomnia. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A reason : Going to bed at the same time every night, even when not feeling tired, can help regulate the body's clock and aid in falling asleep at a regular time. However, lying in bed awake can lead to frustration and should be avoided. If sleep does not come within 20 minutes, it's recommended to get up and do something relaxing until feeling sleepy.
Choice B reason : Exercising can increase alertness and endorphin levels which can make it difficult to fall asleep if done too close to bedtime. Stopping exercise at least 2 hours before bedtime allows the body to wind down and prepare for sleep, making this statement correct and indicative of an understanding of good sleep hygiene practices.
Choice C reason : Watching television or engaging in other stimulating activities in the bedroom can associate the space with wakefulness rather than sleep. The light from screens can also suppress melatonin production, making it harder to fall asleep. Therefore, this statement does not reflect an understanding of the teaching on good sleep practices.
Choice D reason : Taking long naps, especially in the late afternoon or evening, can interfere with nighttime sleep. If naps are necessary, they should be limited to 20-30 minutes and taken earlier in the day. This statement suggests a misunderstanding of the impact of napping on sleep quality at night.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports feeling stressed because they are unable to meet demands at work and care for a family member who is ill. The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following self-concept stressors?
Explanation
Choice A reason : Identity refers to how individuals perceive themselves, including their beliefs, qualities, and expressions. It is the understanding of oneself as a distinct individual. In the context of the client's situation, while stress can impact one's sense of identity, the primary issue described does not directly relate to the client's identity but rather to their ability to fulfill expected roles.
Choice B reason : Role performance stressors arise when individuals feel they cannot meet the expectations associated with their social or work roles. In this case, the client is stressed due to the difficulty in balancing work responsibilities with the demands of caring for an ill family member. This indicates a conflict in role performance, as the client struggles to adequately fulfill the roles of both employee and caregiver.
Choice C reason : Body image pertains to one's perception of the physical self and the feelings associated with this perception. It includes how individuals view their own body and how they believe others perceive it. The client's stress does not stem from concerns about body image but from the pressures of their responsibilities.
Choice D reason : Self-esteem is the value one places on oneself, encompassing feelings of worthiness or unworthiness. It is influenced by various factors, including personal achievements and recognition from others. Although self-esteem can be affected by stress, the scenario provided specifically highlights the client's stress related to role fulfillment, not their self-worth.
A nurse is caring for a client who states, "I did not take my medication because my partner forgot to remind me." The nurse should identify that the client is demonstrating which of the following defense mechanisms?
Explanation
Choice A reason : Rationalization is a defense mechanism where an individual justifies behaviors or feelings with plausible but inaccurate explanations to avoid confronting the true underlying motives or facts. In this scenario, the client is rationalizing their failure to take medication by blaming their partner's forgetfulness, rather than accepting personal responsibility for their health management.
Choice B reason : Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or motives to another person. If the client had accused their partner of being irresponsible with medication as a reflection of their own behavior, it would be an example of projection. However, in this case, the client is not projecting their own forgetfulness onto their partner but rather shifting the blame.
Choice C reason : Repression is an unconscious mechanism employed by the ego to keep disturbing or threatening thoughts from becoming conscious. It involves pushing uncomfortable thoughts or memories into the unconscious mind. The client's statement does not suggest they are unconsciously forgetting to take their medication; instead, they are consciously aware of their action and providing a justification for it.
Choice D reason : Regression is a return to earlier stages of development and abandoned forms of gratification belonging to them, prompted by dangers or conflicts arising at one of the later stages. A client demonstrating regression might exhibit childlike behaviors when faced with stress. The client's statement does not indicate a regression to more infantile behaviors or coping mechanisms.
A nurse is assisting with teaching a class about Piaget's stages of cognitive development. The nurse should reinforce that abstract thinking develops during which of the following stages?
Explanation
The correct answer is: d. Formal operational
Choice A: Concrete operational
During the concrete operational stage, which typically occurs between the ages of 7 and 11, children develop logical thinking skills. They begin to understand the concept of conservation, the idea that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or appearance. However, their thinking is still very concrete and tied to tangible objects and real events. Abstract thinking is not yet developed at this stage.
Choice B: Sensorimotor
The sensorimotor stage spans from birth to about 2 years of age. In this stage, infants learn about the world through their senses and actions. They develop object permanence, the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen, heard, or touched. Abstract thinking does not occur in this stage as infants are focused on immediate sensory experiences and motor activities.
Choice C: Preoperational
The preoperational stage occurs between the ages of 2 and 7. During this stage, children begin to engage in symbolic play and learn to manipulate symbols, but they do not yet understand concrete logic. Their thinking is still egocentric, meaning they have difficulty seeing things from perspectives other than their own. Abstract thinking is not a characteristic of this stage.
Choice D: Formal operational
The formal operational stage begins around age 12 and continues into adulthood. This stage is characterized by the development of abstract thinking and hypothetical reasoning. Individuals in this stage can think about abstract concepts, consider possible outcomes and consequences of actions, and use systematic ways to solve problems. This stage marks the emergence of scientific reasoning and the ability to think about abstract ideas.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal diagnosis and states, "I am ready to update my will." The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following Kübler-Ross stages of grief?
Explanation
Choice A reason : Denial is the first stage of the Kübler-Ross model of grief. In this stage, individuals believe the diagnosis is somehow mistaken, and cling to a false, preferable reality. It is a defense mechanism that buffers the immediate shock of the loss, numbing us to our emotions.
Choice B reason : Anger is the second stage of grief. As the masking effects of denial begin to wear off, reality and its pain re-emerge. The intense emotion is deflected from our vulnerable core, redirected and expressed instead as anger. The anger may be aimed at inanimate objects, complete strangers, friends, or family.
Choice C reason : Bargaining is the third stage. It involves the hope that the individual can avoid a cause of grief. Usually, the negotiation for an extended life is made with a higher power in exchange for a reformed lifestyle.
Choice D reason : Acceptance is the final stage of grief. In this stage, individuals embrace mortality or the inevitable future, or that of a loved one, or other tragic event. People dying may precede the survivors in this state, which typically comes with a calm, retrospective view for the individual, and a stable condition of emotions.
A nurse is assisting with teaching a class about cultural bias in health care. The nurse should include that which of the following can occur as a result of cultural bias?
Explanation
Choice A reason : Cultural bias can negatively impact data collection by causing healthcare providers to make assumptions based on stereotypes rather than individual assessments. This can lead to incomplete or inaccurate data, as certain symptoms or health issues may be overlooked or misattributed to cultural factors.
Choice B reason : Cultural bias can significantly impair the therapeutic relationship between healthcare providers and clients. When providers have preconceived notions about a patient's culture, they may communicate less effectively, make incorrect assumptions, or fail to build trust. This can result in a lack of adherence to treatment plans and decreased patient satisfaction.
Choice C reason : While spending more time with each client could be seen as beneficial, cultural bias does not inherently lead to this outcome. In fact, bias may cause providers to spend less time with clients from certain backgrounds due to misconceptions or communication barriers.
Choice D reason : Cultural bias is a known contributor to healthcare disparities, not a solution to them. Biases can lead to unequal treatment, access, and outcomes across different cultural groups.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at the end of life and is unresponsive. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A reason : Continue to talk to the client as if they are awake.Even when a client is unresponsive, they may still be able to hear and benefit from hearing a familiar voice. Continuing to talk to the client can provide comfort and reassurance during the end-of-life stage⁷.
Choice B reason : Whisper when talking in the client's room.Whispering can create a sense of secrecy and exclusion. It is important to communicate in a normal tone, respecting the client's presence and dignity⁷.
Choice C reason : Limit the client's visitors to one at a time.Limiting visitors can be appropriate in certain situations to maintain a calm environment; however, it should be based on the client's wishes and needs, not as a general practice⁷.
Choice D reason : Avoid touching the client.Appropriate touch can be comforting to an unresponsive client, conveying care and presence. It should not be avoided unless there is a specific reason to do so, such as pain or discomfort⁷.
A nurse is assisting with teaching a client about over-the-counter medications used to treat insomnia. The nurse should include that which of the following is an adverse reaction of diphenhydramine?
Explanation
Choice A reason : Dry mouth, also known as xerostomia, is a common side effect of diphenhydramine, an antihistamine used to treat insomnia among other conditions. It occurs because diphenhydramine has anticholinergic properties, which means it inhibits the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. This inhibition can reduce saliva production, leading to a feeling of dryness in the mouth.
Choice B reason : Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not a typical side effect of diphenhydramine. While some medications, particularly decongestants, can raise blood pressure, diphenhydramine does not usually have this effect. However, individuals with pre-existing heart conditions should consult a healthcare provider before using it.
Choice C reason : Memory loss is not commonly listed as a side effect of diphenhydramine. However, because it can cause drowsiness and has sedative effects, it may lead to temporary forgetfulness or confusion, especially in older adults or when taken in higher doses.
Choice D reason : 'Medications' is not an adverse reaction but rather a general term for drugs used to diagnose, treat, or prevent illness. In the context of diphenhydramine, it would be more appropriate to discuss specific side effects or adverse reactions related to its use.
A nurse is assisting with teaching a class about cultural bias in health care. The nurse should include that which of the following can occur as a result of cultural bias?
Explanation
Choice A reason : Cultural bias does not typically result in an increased amount of time spent with each client. In fact, cultural bias can lead to unequal time allocation, where some clients may receive less attention due to preconceived notions or stereotypes.
Choice B reason : Improved data collection on clients.Cultural bias can negatively affect the quality of data collection on clients. It can lead to assumptions that overlook individual client needs and circumstances, resulting in incomplete or inaccurate health records.
Choice C reason : Increased disparities in health care.Cultural bias in health care can lead to increased disparities. It affects how healthcare providers perceive and interact with patients from different cultural backgrounds, potentially resulting in unequal treatment, misdiagnosis, and reduced access to care for certain groups.
Choice D reason : Improved therapeutic communication with clients.Cultural bias can impair therapeutic communication with clients. When healthcare providers harbor unconscious biases, it can hinder effective communication, leading to misunderstandings and a lack of trust.
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