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Ati n180 pharmacology quiz 2
Ati n180 pharmacology quiz 2
Total Questions : 25
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is teaching a 49-year-old male client who has been newly prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet HB) for the management of peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
A. "This medication may cause increased libido." This is incorrect. Cimetidine (Tagamet) can cause side effects such as decreased libido, especially in men. This occurs because the drug inhibits the action of certain hormones, leading to sexual dysfunction.
B. "You may take this medication with antacids to prevent stomach upset." This is incorrect. Cimetidine should not be taken with antacids because antacids can reduce its absorption and effectiveness. It is advised to space the administration of cimetidine and antacids by at least 1 hour.
C. "This medication will neutralize your stomach acid." This is incorrect. Cimetidine works by blocking histamine receptors (H2 receptors), which reduces the production of stomach acid but does not neutralize it.
D. "This medication may cause decreased libido." This is correct. One of the side effects of cimetidine is reduced libido, particularly in male clients, due to its anti-androgenic effects.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking metformin (Glucophage) and is scheduled to undergo angiography using iodine-containing contrast dye. The nurse should identify that an interaction between metformin and the IV contrast dye increases the client's risk for which of the following conditions?
Explanation
A. Hyperglycemia: While metformin is used to manage blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes, its interaction with contrast dye does not directly lead to hyperglycemia. However, the risk for kidney injury, which can affect glucose regulation, is a concern.
B. Acute renal failure: This is correct. The combination of metformin and iodine-containing contrast dye increases the risk of acute renal failure, also known as contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN). This occurs because contrast agents can cause kidney damage, and metformin is excreted by the kidneys. If renal function is impaired, the buildup of metformin can lead to lactic acidosis.
C. Acute pancreatitis: While acute pancreatitis is a possible side effect of metformin in some individuals, the primary concern with iodine-containing contrast dye is renal failure, not pancreatitis.
D. Acute liver failure: Metformin is primarily metabolized by the kidneys, not the liver, and does not commonly cause liver failure. Renal failure is the more pressing concern with the use of contrast dye in clients taking metformin.
A nurse is caring for a 62-year-old client with diabetes who has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). Which of the following statements is true regarding metoclopramide (Reglan)? (Select All That Apply.)
Explanation
A. "Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and prolonged QT interval." This is correct. Metoclopramide (Reglan) can cause side effects such as tardive dyskinesia, a movement disorder, and may prolong the QT interval, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias.
B. "The IV form of this medication is used for control of postoperative and chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, as well as facilitation of small bowel intubation and examination of the GI tract." This is correct. The IV form of metoclopramide is commonly used for these indications, particularly for nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy or surgery, as well as aiding in small bowel intubation.
C. "Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and sedation." This is correct. In addition to tardive dyskinesia, metoclopramide can also cause sedation, making patients feel drowsy or lethargic.
D. "The oral form is used for diabetic gastroparesis (delayed stomach emptying with gas and bloating) and management of GERD through its ability to increase gastric motility." This is correct. The oral form of metoclopramide is frequently used to treat diabetic gastroparesis by improving gastric emptying, as well as managing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) by enhancing motility.
You are caring for a client with hypothyroidism that is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). The client reports diarrhea, weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. You suspect which of the following adverse effects of this drug?
Explanation
A. Hypothyroidism: This is incorrect. The client is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) to treat hypothyroidism, and the symptoms described (diarrhea, weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance) are more likely associated with excess thyroid hormone, not a lack of it.
B. Thyrotoxicosis: This is correct. The symptoms the client is experiencing—diarrhea, weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance—are classic signs of thyrotoxicosis, which occurs when there is an excess of thyroid hormone, possibly due to overtreatment with levothyroxine. These symptoms indicate that the thyroid hormone dose might need adjustment.
C. Addison's Disease: This is incorrect. Addison's disease is characterized by insufficient production of adrenal hormones and would typically manifest with symptoms such as fatigue, hypotension, and hyperpigmentation, not diarrhea or heat intolerance.
D. Cushing's Disease: This is incorrect. Cushing's disease is caused by excess cortisol and would typically result in symptoms such as weight gain, high blood pressure, and a round "moon" face, rather than the symptoms described in the question.
A nurse is caring for a client who is newly prescribed with glipizide (Glucotrol) for Type 2 Diabetes. The client is not sure about the possible complications of this medication. Complete the sentence with the appropriate responses.
The nurse understands that complications of glipizide (Glucotrol) include
Explanation
Weight gain: Glipizide, like other sulfonylureas, can cause weight gain as it stimulates insulin secretion, which can lead to increased fat storage.
Hypoglycemia: One of the most common and serious side effects of glipizide is hypoglycemia, as it increases insulin levels, which can lower blood sugar too much
A nurse is educating a client who is newly prescribed scopolamine (Scopace) patches for treating motion sickness. Which of the following client statements indicate to the nurse that the teaching has been effective? (Select All That Apply.).
Explanation
A. "I should apply this patch behind my ear.": This is correct because the scopolamine patch is designed to be applied behind the ear, where it can effectively deliver medication through the skin.
B. "This patch should be replaced every 7 days.": This is incorrect because the scopolamine patch should be replaced every 72 hours (3 days), not every 7 days.
C. "I should not use a second patch if the initial patch is ineffective.": This is correct because using more than one patch at a time can lead to an overdose of the medication, which can cause serious side effects.
D. "Before putting on my patch, I should wipe the area with an alcohol swab.": This is incorrect because using an alcohol swab can irritate the skin and affect the absorption of the medication. The area should be clean and dry, but not cleaned with alcohol.
A nurse is caring for a client who received prochlorperazine (Compazine) via intravenous push (IVP) 2 hours ago for nausea/vomiting PRN. The nurse noted that the client had a sudden onset of involuntary spasms of the face and neck along with anxiety. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? (Select All That Apply.).
Explanation
A. Glucagon (Glucagen): Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia and is not indicated for managing EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
B. Metformin (Glucophage): Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to manage diabetes mellitus and is not relevant for treating EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
C. Benztropine (Cogentin): Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as involuntary muscle spasms, caused by antipsychotic medications like prochlorperazine2.
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with anticholinergic properties that can also be used to manage EPS, including dystonic reactions2.
A client is prescribed cimetidine 400 mg PO twice daily. It is available as an oral liquid of 100 mg per teaspoon. How many teaspoons should the client take per dose?
Explanation
A. 4 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 4 teaspoons would provide 400 mg (100 mg x 4 = 400 mg), but the correct dose per administration is 400 mg. However, this is not the correct calculation, as only 2 teaspoons are needed.
B. 2 teaspoons – This is correct. The prescribed dose is 400 mg, and since the medication concentration is 100 mg per teaspoon, 2 teaspoons (100 mg x 2 = 200 mg) is the correct dose for each administration.
C. 1 teaspoon – This is incorrect because 1 teaspoon would only provide 100 mg, and the prescribed dose is 400 mg. This is not enough to meet the prescribed dose.
D. 3 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 3 teaspoons would provide 300 mg (100 mg x 3 = 300 mg), which is not enough to meet the prescribed 400 mg dose.
A nurse is preparing to provide an in-service to the community about misoprostol (Cytotec). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching to the community?
Explanation
A. 4 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 4 teaspoons would provide 400 mg (100 mg x 4 = 400 mg), but the correct dose per administration is 400 mg. However, this is not the correct calculation, as only 2 teaspoons are needed.
B. 2 teaspoons – This is correct. The prescribed dose is 400 mg, and since the medication concentration is 100 mg per teaspoon, 2 teaspoons (100 mg x 2 = 200 mg) is the correct dose for each administration.
C. 1 teaspoon – This is incorrect because 1 teaspoon would only provide 100 mg, and the prescribed dose is 400 mg. This is not enough to meet the prescribed dose.
D. 3 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 3 teaspoons would provide 300 mg (100 mg x 3 = 300 mg), which is not enough to meet the prescribed 400 mg dose.
A nurse is educating a client about self-administering regular insulin. The nurse should instruct the client to rotate injection sites to prevent which of the following?
Explanation
A. Lipohypertrophy – This is correct. Lipohypertrophy is the thickening of subcutaneous fat that can occur from repeated insulin injections at the same site. This can interfere with insulin absorption, leading to inconsistent glucose control. Rotating injection sites prevents this complication and ensures even absorption of insulin.
B. Injection pain – This is incorrect. Injection pain is typically related to technique or needle size rather than the location. Rotating injection sites does not specifically address this issue.
C. Rapid absorption – This is incorrect. Rotating injection sites does not necessarily prevent rapid absorption but ensures more consistent absorption rates.
D. Intradermal injection – This is incorrect. Intradermal injection occurs when the needle is not inserted deep enough, unrelated to rotating injection sites.
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