Ati nur 112 fundamentals of nursing exam
Ati nur 112 fundamentals of nursing exam
Total Questions : 47
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is providing discharge teaching about clean intermittent self-catheterization for a client who has benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Explanation
A. Hold the penis at a 30° to 45° angle when inserting the catheter. The penis should be held at a 90° angle to straighten the urethra and facilitate catheter insertion.
B. Perform catheterization when you recognize the urge to void. Clients with BPH may not sense the urge due to urinary retention. Catheterization should be performed at scheduled intervals to prevent bladder overdistention.
C. Use soap and water to wash the catheter after each use. Proper cleaning of the catheter with soap and water helps prevent infection and prolongs the catheter’s usability.
D. Inflate the balloon when the urine flow stops. Self-catheterization uses a straight catheter, which does not have a balloon for inflation (balloons are used in indwelling catheters).
A nurse is assisting a patient in making dietary choices that promote healthy bowel elimination. Which menu option should the nurse recommend?
Explanation
A. Grapes and walnut chicken salad sandwich on whole wheat bread. Whole wheat bread and grapes are rich in fiber, which promotes regular bowel movements and prevents constipation.
B. Dinner salad topped with hard-boiled eggs, cheese, and fat-free dressing. This meal lacks sufficient fiber. Cheese and eggs can contribute to constipation.
C. Broccoli and cheese soup with potato bread. While broccoli has fiber, the cheese and potato bread are low in fiber and may contribute to constipation.
D. Turkey and mashed potatoes with brown gravy. This meal is low in fiber, and gravy can be high in fat, which may slow digestion.
The nurse is emptying an ileostomy pouch for a patient Which assessment finding will the nurse report immediately?
Explanation
A. Continuous output from the stoma. Ileostomies typically have continuous liquid output, which is expected.
B. Presence of blood in the stool: Blood in the stool can indicate stomal irritation, ulceration, or bleeding from the intestines, which requires immediate medical attention.
C. Malodorous stool. While foul-smelling stool can suggest an issue (e.g., infection), it is not necessarily an emergency.
D. Liquid consistency with hard stool particles. Ileostomy output is expected to be liquid, and occasional solid particles may occur if certain foods are not fully digested.
A nurse administers an antimuscarinic to a patient. A decrease in which findings indicate the patient is having therapeutic effects from this medication? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
A. Urgency: Antimuscarinic medications reduce bladder contractions, thereby decreasing the sudden urge to urinate.
B. Frequency: These medications help by increasing bladder capacity and reducing the need to urinate frequently.
C. Dysuria: Some antimuscarinics can alleviate bladder irritation, which may improve dysuria (painful urination) in certain conditions.
D. Prostate size: Antimuscarinics do not reduce prostate size. Medications like 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (e.g., finasteride) are used for this purpose.
E. Bladder infection: Antimuscarinics do not treat infections. Antibiotics are required to treat bladder infections (UTIs).
A nurse assessing a client’s notes that the client has a constant leakage of small amounts of urine and a bladder that is distended and palpable. The nurse should associate these findings with which of the following types of urinary incontinence?
Explanation
A. Reflex incontinence occurs due to a neurological impairment where the bladder empties involuntarily without sensation of fullness (e.g., spinal cord injury). This client’s symptoms suggest retention rather than involuntary reflex voiding.
B. Urge incontinence is characterized by a sudden, strong urge to urinate followed by involuntary leakage, typically caused by an overactive bladder. This does not match the description of small, continuous leakage with bladder distention.
C. Stress incontinence is due to weakened pelvic muscles, leading to urine leakage during activities like coughing, sneezing, or laughing. This does not describe constant leakage with a distended bladder.
D. Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder becomes overly full due to incomplete emptying, leading to continuous dribbling of urine. The presence of a distended and palpable bladder strongly supports this diagnosis.
A nurse is assessing an older adult client who reports a sudden onset of urinary incontinence. The nurse should recognize which of the following conditions can cause incontinence in the older adult client?
Explanation
A. Uremia is a buildup of waste products in the blood due to kidney failure, leading to confusion, nausea, and other systemic symptoms rather than acute urinary incontinence.
B. Cystitis (bladder infection) causes inflammation, urgency, frequency, dysuria, and can lead to sudden incontinence in older adults, particularly those with weakened immune systems or cognitive impairment.
C. Diverticulitis is an inflammation of the colon’s diverticula, leading to abdominal pain and bowel disturbances, not urinary incontinence.
D. Nephrosclerosis is a chronic condition involving kidney damage due to hypertension or diabetes, which may lead to kidney failure but does not directly cause acute urinary incontinence.
A nurse is planning care for a group of patients. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel (AP)?
Explanation
A. Irrigating a catheter: Catheter irrigation requires sterile technique and nursing judgment, making it an inappropriate task for an AP. It must be performed by a licensed nurse.
B. Interpreting a bladder scan result: APs may perform bladder scans in some settings, but interpretation of results requires nursing knowledge and clinical decision-making, which is beyond their scope of practice.
C. Obtaining a midstream urine specimen: Collecting a urine specimen is a non-invasive task that falls within the scope of practice for an AP, as it does not require sterile technique or nursing assessment.
D. Inserting a straight catheter: Insertion of a catheter requires sterile technique and nursing assessment, making it a task reserved for licensed nurses.
A nurse is teaching a client about which foods she should include in her low-fiber diet. Which of the following statements indicates the client understands the teaching?
Explanation
A. "I can prepare refried beans for supper." Refried beans are high in fiber and would not be appropriate for a low-fiber diet.
B. "I should choose white rice as a side dish." White rice is low in fiber and easily digestible, making it a good choice for a low-fiber diet.
C. "A fresh pear would be a good snack option." Fresh pears contain high amounts of fiber, particularly in the skin, making them unsuitable for a low-fiber diet.
D. "Bran cereal would be a good breakfast choice." Bran cereal is very high in fiber and would not be appropriate for a low-fiber diet.
A nurse is reviewing urinary laboratory results. Which finding will cause the nurse to follow up?
Explanation
A. Urine output of 80 mL/hr: Normal urine output is 30–50 mL/hr. A urine output of 80 mL/hr is within an acceptable range and does not indicate a problem.
B. Specific gravity of 1.036: Normal urine specific gravity ranges from 1.005 to 1.030. A level of 1.036 indicates dehydration or concentrated urine, which requires further assessment.
C. pH of 6.4: Normal urine pH ranges from 4.5 to 8.0, with an average around 6.0. A pH of 6.4 is within normal limits and does not require follow-up.
D. Protein level of 2 mg/100 mL: Normal urine protein is less than 8 mg/100 mL, so 2 mg/100 mL is within normal limits and does not indicate a concern.
A nurse at a health fair is assessing the weight status of four clients. Which of the following clients are classified as overweight?
Explanation
A. A female client who has a body mass index of 24: A BMI of 18.5–24.9 is considered normal weight. Since the BMI is 24, this client is in the normal weight range.
B. A male client who has a body mass index of 29: A BMI of 25–29.9 is classified as overweight. Since the BMI is 29, this client is overweight but not obese.
C. A male client who has a waist circumference of 96.52 cm (38 in): The at-risk waist circumference for males is ≥40 inches (102 cm). Since this client’s waist circumference is 38 inches, he is not classified as overweight based on this parameter.
D. A female client who has a waist circumference of 101.6 cm (40 in): The at-risk waist circumference for females is ≥35 inches (88 cm), but waist circumference alone does not classify someone as overweight. BMI is the primary measure used.
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