A. Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) that serves as an effective alternative to ACE inhibitors, particularly for patients who experience cough as a side effect.

B. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker, which is not a direct alternative to ACE inhibitors and is used for different indications such as heart rate and blood pressure control.

C. Furosemide is a diuretic that does not directly substitute for the actions of ACE inhibitors.

D. Hydralazine is a direct vasodilator used for hypertension but does not share the same mechanism as ACE inhibitors or serve as a direct alternative.

A. Hypokalemia can occur with some antihypertensives, but it is more associated with diuretics rather than ACE inhibitors. Vomiting is not a common side effect.

B. A dry, non-productive cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors, which the nurse should specifically assess for during follow-up.

C. Epistaxis (nosebleed) and headache are not common or specific side effects associated with ACE inhibitors.

D. Nausea and vomiting can occur with various medications, but they are not specifically indicative of ACE inhibitor use.

A. Hypokalemia is not typically associated with ACE inhibitors like quinapril; rather, hyperkalemia (increased potassium levels) is a concern.

B. First dose phenomenon refers to significant hypotension that can occur after the first dose of an ACE inhibitor and should be monitored.

C. Hepatotoxicity is not a common side effect of ACE inhibitors.

D. A dry non-productive cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors, including quinapril.

E. Orthostatic hypotension can occur with ACE inhibitors, especially after the initial dose, making patient education important.

aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) is the primary lab test used to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa, thus prolonging the aPTT. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is therapeutic and reduces the risk of bleeding.

PT-INR (Prothrombin Time - International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor patients on warfarin therapy. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which affects the prothrombin time (PT). The INR standardizes PT results, allowing for consistent monitoring of anticoagulation status. It is critical to maintain the INR within the therapeutic range to balance the risk of thrombosis against the risk of bleeding.

A. Argatroban is specifically indicated for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), as it is a direct thrombin inhibitor that does not cause further platelet depletion.

B. Myocardial infarction is treated with different classes of anticoagulants or antiplatelet medications, not specifically argatroban.

C. Gastrointestinal bleeding would generally be a contraindication to anticoagulation therapy rather than an indication for argatroban use.

D. Hepatotoxicity could be a concern when using argatroban, especially as it is metabolized in the liver, but it does not indicate a need for this medication.

A. Daily weight monitoring is not specifically required with doxazosin and is more relevant for medications that may cause fluid retention or significant weight changes.

B. First-dose hypotension is a common and significant side effect of doxazosin, and advising the patient to lie down after the first dose helps mitigate the risk of dizziness and falls.

C. Impaired taste is not a known side effect of doxazosin, making this statement inaccurate.

D. While potassium intake is important for overall health, doxazosin does not typically require dietary potassium adjustments.

A. Rebound hypotension can occur with the abrupt withdrawal of beta-blockers like esmolol, so clients should be advised against suddenly stopping the medication.

B. Vomiting is not a typical or common side effect of esmolol.

C. Bradycardia is a known effect of beta-blockers, including esmolol, and should be monitored.

D. Esmolol can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia in diabetic patients, which is an important consideration for patient education.

E. Tremors are not commonly associated with esmolol; rather, they might be seen in other conditions or medications.

F. Bronchoconstriction can occur with non-selective beta-blockers; however, esmolol is cardioselective, so the risk is lower but still possible, especially in patients with underlying respiratory conditions.

A. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of alteplase; instead, it may result from other factors.

B. Internal bleeding is a significant risk associated with thrombolytics like alteplase, as they promote the breakdown of clots but can also affect hemostasis.

C. Pancytopenia is not directly associated with alteplase use; it may occur with other medications or conditions.

D. Hypertension is not a common side effect of alteplase; instead, blood pressure may fluctuate but is not typically increased as a direct result of the medication.

A. Hypocalcemia is not directly linked to digoxin toxicity; rather, it is more associated with calcium channel blockers.

B. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as low potassium levels can enhance the effects of digoxin on the heart.

C. Hyperkalemia is not directly associated with toxicity; however, it can cause complications in patients taking digoxin.

D. Hypernatremia does not have a direct impact on digoxin toxicity; monitoring potassium levels is more critical.

A. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for various cardiac conditions but is not typically the first-line treatment for acute ventricular dysrhythmias.

B. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, which is not indicated for immediate management of ventricular dysrhythmias.

C. Procainamide is an antiarrhythmic medication specifically used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias and would be appropriate in this scenario.

D. Adenosine is typically used for rapid atrial dysrhythmias, not specifically for ventricular dysrhythmias, making procainamide the better choice.