Video Library
Pharmocology Exam Fletcher NRSG 106
ATI Pharmocology Exam Fletcher NRSG 106
Total Questions : 47
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreBefore administering a client's prescribed nonselective adrenergic blocker, what should the nurse assess?
Explanation
A. Assessing the WBC count is not directly related to the administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications primarily affect the cardiovascular system.
B. Assessing pulse and blood pressure is crucial before administering a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications can cause bradycardia and hypotension as side effects, so it's
important to ensure the client's baseline pulse and blood pressure are within acceptable ranges before giving the medication.
C. Assessing bowel sounds is not directly related to the administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications primarily affect the cardiovascular system.
D. Assessing serum sodium and potassium levels is not directly related to the administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocker. These medications primarily affect the cardiovascular system.
The drug nalbuphine is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists?
Explanation
A. Partial agonists like nalbuphine have a lower dependency potential than full agonists. This means they are less likely to lead to physical dependence or tolerance when used for pain
management.
B. Partial agonists do not necessarily have a higher potency than agonists. Potency refers to the dose of a drug required to produce a specific effect, which can vary among different drugs regardless of their classification as agonists or partial agonists.
C. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used for their anti-inflammatory effects.
They are primarily used for pain management.
D. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used to reverse the effects of opiates. They may be used in certain situations to manage opioid-induced side effects or in cases of opioid overdose, but their primary indication is for pain management.
A school-aged child is brought to the clinic by her parents. The parents state that the child will be engaged in some activity at home and then will just stop suddenly for a few seconds and then pick up the activity again as if there had been no break in what she was doing. This child should be assessed for what neurological disorder?
Explanation
A. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by sudden, brief muscle jerks or twitches. These
movements are usually more pronounced and may involve multiple muscle groups compared to the described behavior, which involves a brief pause in activity without muscle jerks.
B. Absence seizures are characterized by brief episodes of staring or blanking out, often lasting for a few seconds. During an absence seizure, the child may appear to be staring into space, unaware of their surroundings. After the seizure, the child typically resumes their previous
activity without any memory of the event.
C. Status epilepticus refers to a prolonged seizure or a series of seizures without full recovery of consciousness between seizures. This condition is a medical emergency and presents with continuous or recurrent seizures without regaining consciousness.
D. Tonic-clonic seizures involve a sequence of tonic (stiffening) and clonic (jerking) phases, often accompanied by loss of consciousness and sometimes preceded by an aura. The described behavior does not fit the pattern of a tonic-clonic seizure, which typically involves more noticeable motor activity and loss of consciousness.
A nurse is preparing to administer amantadine 150 mg PO every 12 hr. Available is amantadine 50 mg/5 mL syrup. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Explanation
Given:
Amantadine syrup concentration: 50 mg/5 mL Desired dose of amantadine: 150 mg
5ml contains 50mg
1ml contains 50/5= 10mg Given 10mg is in 1ml
Then 150mg will be contained in: 150/10
=15ml
The nurse is reviewing the use of central nervous system stimulants. Which of these are indications for this class of drugs? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
A. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) - Correct. CNS stimulants like
methylphenidate and amphetamine derivatives are commonly used to treat ADHD by improving attention, focus, and impulse control.
B. Panic attacks - Incorrect. CNS stimulants are not typically used to treat panic attacks.
Medications such as benzodiazepines or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are more commonly used for panic disorder.
C. Narcolepsy - Correct. CNS stimulants are used to treat narcolepsy, a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep.
D. Neonatal apnea - Incorrect. CNS stimulants are not indicated for neonatal apnea.
Management of neonatal apnea usually involves supportive measures, respiratory support, and caffeine citrate as a respiratory stimulant.
E. Obesity - Correct. CNS stimulants like phentermine are sometimes used as adjuncts to diet and exercise for short-term management of obesity
For dinner the client drank two 8 oz cups of coffee and had a 12 ounce soft drink at 2100. The client voided 4 times on your shift (100ml, 250mL 300ml, and 550mL). At 1700 the client had 100mL emesis. Calculate the intake from 1500 to 2300 when your shift ends. Round your answer to the nearest whole number.
Explanation
2 cups of coffee: 2 cups 8 oz/cup = 16 oz
1 soft drink: 12 oz
Total intake from 1500 to 2100 = 16 oz (coffee) + 12 oz (soft drink) = 28 oz
From 2100 to 2300 (2 hours):
No additional intake mentioned in the question.
Total intake from 1500 to 2300 = 28 oz (from 1500 to 2100)
Therefore, the total intake from 1500 to 2300 is 28 ounces.
An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?
Explanation
A. Decreased urine output is not the primary intended effect of an adrenergic agonist in the
treatment of shock. While adrenergic agonists may increase blood pressure, leading to a decrease in urine output due to vasoconstriction, the primary goal of administering these drugs in shock is to improve tissue perfusion and cardiac output.
B. Increased cardiac output is the primary intended effect of adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. These medications stimulate adrenergic receptors, leading to increased heart rate, contractility, and stroke volume, ultimately improving cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
C. Volume restoration may be a secondary effect of administering fluids along with adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock, but it is not the primary intended effect of the medication
itself.
D. Reduced anxiety is not a primary goal of administering adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. While these medications may have anxiolytic effects in certain situations, the primary goal is to improve cardiovascular function and tissue perfusion.
A patient has been taking ergotamine to relieve their migraines. Which of the following adverse effects would indicate to the nurse that the drug may have entered into toxic levels?
Explanation
A. Diarrhea is not typically associated with ergotamine toxicity. Gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting are more common adverse effects of ergotamine use.
B. Delirium is a potential sign of ergotamine toxicity. At toxic levels, ergotamine can cause central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, and delirium.
C. Hypotension may occur as an adverse effect of ergotamine due to its vasoconstrictive properties. However, hypotension alone may not indicate ergotamine toxicity.
D. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of ergotamine. Ergotamine is more commonly associated with vasoconstriction and can lead to hypertension or tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
A. Diarrhea is not typically associated with ergotamine toxicity. Gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting are more common adverse effects of ergotamine use.
B. Delirium is a potential sign of ergotamine toxicity. At toxic levels, ergotamine can cause central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, and delirium.
C. Hypotension may occur as an adverse effect of ergotamine due to its vasoconstrictive properties. However, hypotension alone may not indicate ergotamine toxicity.
D. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of ergotamine. Ergotamine is more commonly associated with vasoconstriction and can lead to hypertension or tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
A patient has been given a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa for a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. The patient asks the nurse, "Why are there two drugs in this pill?" The nurse's best response reflects which fact?
Explanation
A. Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery, specifically in the gastrointestinal tract and peripheral tissues, allowing more levodopa to reach the brain and be converted to dopamine. This enhances the effectiveness of levodopa therapy in managing the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
B. Carbidopa is not the biologic precursor of dopamine. It is a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor that does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
C. Carbidopa does not directly allow for larger doses of levodopa to be given. However, by
inhibiting the peripheral breakdown of levodopa, it enhances the availability of levodopa to the central nervous system, potentially improving therapeutic efficacy.
D. While levodopa-carbidopa combination therapy may have fewer drug-food interactions compared to levodopa alone, the primary reason for combining these medications is to enhance the effectiveness of levodopa by preventing its peripheral breakdown.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. On which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to instruct the client?
Explanation
A. Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication used to treat seizures and certain mood disorders. It is not typically used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease.
B. Piperacillin/tazobactam is an antibiotic combination used to treat bacterial infections. It is not used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease.
C. Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism. It is not used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease.
D. Levodopa/carbidopa is a medication commonly used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease to manage motor symptoms such as tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The nurse should provide
thorough education to the client regarding the indication, dosage, administration, potential side effects, and precautions associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy.
You just viewed 10 questions out of the 47 questions on the ATI Pharmocology Exam Fletcher NRSG 106 Exam. Subscribe to our Premium Package to obtain access on all the questions and have unlimited access on all Exams. Subscribe Now
